1.
What vitamin is involved intensively in amino acid metabolism?
A) Biotin
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin B6
D) Riboflavin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
2.
Why might vitamin C supplements be beneficial in treating the common cold?
A) They deactivate histamine
B) They reduce episodes of diarrhea
C) They destroy intestinal pathogens
D) They alter hypothalamic control of body temperature
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
3.
Which of the following is not among the common signs of pellagra?
A) Diarrhea
B) Dementia
C) Dermatitis
D) Desiccation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
4.
The absorption of which of the following vitamins is most affected by the
disorder atrophic gastritis?
A) Choline
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B12
D) Pantothenic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
5.
Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to
A) heat.
B) acid.
C) alkali.
D) ultraviolet light.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
6.
Which of the following explains why B vitamin deficiencies lead to lack of
energy?
A) B vitamins are a source of kilocalories
B) Absorption of carbohydrates and fats is decreased
C) Oxygen for energy metabolism cannot be transported to the cells
D) Coenzymes needed for energy metabolism are produced in insufficient
amounts
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
7.
Normally, the body's storage and re-utilization of vitamin B12 prevents a
primary or secondary deficiency from occurring until after about
A) 3 days.
B) 3 weeks.
C) 3 months.
D) 3 years.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
8.
Folate deficiency has been reported in infants fed
A) soy milk.
B) goat's milk.
C) chicken liver.
D) infant formula.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
9.
How much vitamin C is needed daily to raise blood ascorbic acid
concentrations to a maximum?
A) 10 mg
B) 75 mg
C) 125 mg
D) 200 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
10.
What vitamin deficiency disease appeared in people who had subsisted on a
diet high in corn and low in protein?
A) Scurvy
B) Pellagra
C) Wet beriberi
D) Pernicious anemia
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
11.
What is the minimum daily amount of ascorbic acid that will prevent the
appearance of scorbutic symptoms in human beings?
A) 10 mg
B) 30 mg
C) 50 mg
D) 60 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
12.
Biotin can be synthesized by
A) avidin.
B) the skin.
C) the liver.
D) intestinal bacteria.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
13.
Which of the following conditions may improve with vitamin E therapy?
A) Diabetes
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Intermittent claudication
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
14.
In comparison with the RDA for vitamin E, about how many fold higher is
the Tolerable Upper Intake Level?
A) 2
B) 10
C) 25
D) 65
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
15.
Which of the following is responsible for transporting vitamin A from the
liver to other tissues?
A) Albumin
B) Rhodopsin
C) Retinol-binding protein
D) Transcarotenoid protein
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
16.
Which of the following is not a feature of vitamin D nutrition?
A) A dietary source is oily fish
B) The DRI fails to account for skin synthesis of vitamin D
C) Excessive exposure to the sun increases risk for vitamin D toxicity
D) People who are not outdoors are advised to drink at least 2 cups of
vitamin D-fortified milk daily
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
17.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who
regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice?
A) Bone pain
B) Dermatitis
C) Skin yellowing
D) Vitamin A toxicity
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
18.
Which of the following describes an association of vitamin A and vision?
A) Retinoic acid is the form required for synthesis of retinoblasts
B) Light causes retinal to shift from a cis to a trans configuration
C) Retinol is the form bound to beta-carotene in the corneal membrane
D) Pigment molecules in the retina are composed of a molecule of vitamin A
bound to an omega-3 fatty acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
19.
If a normal, healthy adult were to begin consuming a vitamin A-poor diet,
approximately how much time would pass before the first deficiency
symptoms would appear?
A) 2 weeks
B) 1 to 2 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 to 2 years
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
20.
Recently, there has been a lot of news about the importance of
antioxidants in the diet. Which of the following vitamins has been noted
as preventing the oxidation of low-density lipoproteins?
A) A
B) E
C) K
D) D
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
21.
Which of the following conditions or diseases are known to be caused by a
deficiency of the same nutrient?
A) Osteomalacia and rickets
B) Xerophthalmia and breath pentane release
C) Kwashiorkor and fibrocystic breast disease
D) Hemolytic anemia and large-cell type anemia
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
22.
To convert the number of tocopherol equivalents to alpha-tocopherol,
multiply by the factor
A) 0.8.
B) 1.4.
C) 2.0.
D) 3.3.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
23.
Greg says that he usually eats 1 medium carrot every day to ensure that
he's consuming enough vitamin A. Today he said he didn't eat any carrots
and is worried that there is not enough vitamin A in his system. What
would you say to Greg to allay his fear?
A) "Take a vitamin A supplement as soon as you can!"
B) "As long as you eat some chicken tonight you will not develop chicken
eyes."
C) "Well, there isn't any vitamin A in carrots so you probably haven't
consumed vitamin A for some time now."
D) "Don't worry; fat-soluble vitamins are stored in the body. It takes a
lot longer than one day to develop any adverse effects."
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
24.
What are the known effects of raising animals on diets containing retinoic
acid as the only source of vitamin A?
A) Growth is stunted
B) Blindness develops
C) Retinal synthesis is stimulated
D) Retinol synthesis is stimulated
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
25.
Approximately how many children worldwide have vitamin A deficiency?
A) 5 million
B) 25 million
C) 250 million
D) 500 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
26.
Which of the following is not a feature of potassium deficiency?
A) It leads to hyperglycemia
B) It leads to higher blood pressure
C) It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes
D) It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
27.
Where is the majority of the body's magnesium found?
A) Bones
B) Teeth
C) Fatty tissue
D) Cells of soft tissue
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
28.
Factors that are effective in regulating the body's water balance include
all of the following except
A) adrenaline.
B) aldosterone.
C) angiotensin.
D) antidiuretic hormone.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
29.
In what decade of life does osteoporosis first begin in men and women?
A) Fourth
B) Fifth
C) Sixth
D) Seventh
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
30.
The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent
A) dehydration.
B) constipation.
C) osteoporosis.
D) hypertension.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
31.
All of the following are known to have a high sulfur content except
A) skin.
B) hair.
C) teeth.
D) nails.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
32.
Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
A) Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
C) High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
D) Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood
pressure
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
33.
Which of the following minerals is involved in the transportation of
lipids through the body's lymph and blood systems?
A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
34.
Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates?
A) Seeds and nuts
B) Processed cheeses
C) Fermented dairy products
D) Spinach and sweet potatoes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
35.
The normal blood pH range is approximately
A) 6.80-7.15.
B) 6.98-7.12.
C) 7.35-7.45.
D) 7.55-8.55.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
36.
What percentage of people with osteoporosis are female?
A) 20
B) 40
C) 60
D) 80
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
37.
The incidence of death within 1 year of sustaining a hip fracture is about
A) 2%
B) 6%
C) 14%
D) 25%
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
38.
Under which of the following conditions are certain supplements of zinc
reported to be beneficial?
A) In the treatment of colds
B) In the treatment of Menkes syndrome
C) In the treatment of toxicity from certain other metals
D) In the treatment of slow growth syndrome in U.S. children
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
39.
Why is taking vitamin C ineffective at enhancing iron absorption from
standard iron supplements?
A) The iron in the supplement is in a chelated form
B) The iron in the supplement is already in the ferrous form
C) The iron in the supplement binds irreversibly with vitamin C
D) The iron supplement already contains MFP to enhance absorption
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
40.
What is the average lifespan of red blood cells?
A) Two weeks
B) One month
C) Four months
D) Six months
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
41.
Evidence to date in animals and/or human beings suggests that normal bone
metabolism requires all of the following trace minerals except
A) boron.
B) silver.
C) silicon.
D) vanadium.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
42.
Approximately how much higher is the RDA for iron for a vegetarian woman
of childbearing age compared with her nonvegetarian counterpart?
A) 33%
B) 80%
C) 150%
D) 200%
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
43.
Which of the following is a feature of the disorder hereditary
hemochromatosis?
A) It is characterized by acrodermatitis
B) It is found primarily in women of child-bearing age
C) It is associated with defects of copper and zinc absorption
D) It is the most common genetic disorder in the United States
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
44.
One of the thyroid gland hormones is called
A) thyroxine.
B) goitrogen.
C) thiostimulating hormone.
D) tissue stimulating hormone.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
45.
Approximately how much iron would be provided by a balanced diet supplying
2000 kcalories?
A) 3 mg
B) 6 mg
C) 12 mg
D) 30 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
46.
If a person's body has a total of 5 grams of iron, how many grams would be
found in the hemoglobin?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
47.
Which of the following may result from iodine deficiency?
A) Gout
B) Goiter
C) Anemia
D) Hypertension
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
48.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iron?
A) 45 mg
B) 90 mg
C) 120 mg
D) Twice the RDA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
49.
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron absorption?
A) MPF in plant foods enhances overall iron absorption
B) Ferritin in red meat interferes with ferrous iron absorption
C) Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron
D) Transferrin released from pancreatic juice regulates iron uptake from
mucosal cells
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
50.
Which of the following describes one aspect of iron toxicity?
A) Among men in the United States, it is twice as common as iron-
deficiency anemia
B) In adults, the consumption of alcohol is somewhat protective against
absorption of excess iron
C) In most people with this disorder, infections are rare because bacteria
are killed by excess iron in the blood
D) It is usually caused by a virus that attacks the intestinal mucosal
cells leading to unregulated and excessive iron absorption
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
1.
Tryptophan can be used in the body to synthesize
A) FAD.
B) biotin.
C) niacin.
D) inositol.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
2.
What is the approximate niacin RDA for adults?
A) 15 niacin equivalents
B) 30 niacin equivalents
C) 15 tryptophan equivalents
D) 30 tryptophan equivalents
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
3.
Pernicious anemia results from a combination of lack of intrinsic factor
and
A) ariboflavonosis.
B) lack of hydrochloric acid.
C) lack of pancreatic vitaminases.
D) pharmacologic intakes of folate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
4.
Features of biotin in nutrition include all of the following except
A) it functions in the breakdown of amino acids and fatty acids.
B) it functions as a carrier of carbon dioxide in energy metabolism.
C) a deficiency can be induced by ingesting large quantities of raw egg
whites.
D) a deficiency can be induced by ingesting large amounts of thiamin and
folic acid, which interfere with its absorption.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
5.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for vitamin B6?
A) 100 mg
B) 500 mg
C) 1000 mg
D) 10,000 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
6.
People who smoke require additional vitamin C in the amount of
A) 5 mg.
B) 35 mg.
C) 100 mg.
D) 200 mg.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
7.
Which of the following foods provides ample amounts of vitamin C?
A) Tofu
B) Yogurt
C) Legumes
D) Broccoli
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
8.
Biotin can be synthesized by
A) avidin.
B) the skin.
C) the liver.
D) intestinal bacteria.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
9.
Beriberi results from a deficiency of
A) niacin.
B) thiamin.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
10.
Which of the following foods is highest in folate?
A) Meats
B) Starches
C) Dairy products
D) Green, leafy vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
11.
What is the function of intrinsic factor in vitamin B12 absorption?
A) It catalyzes release of the vitamin from its protein-bound form
B) It attaches to the vitamin, thereby allowing absorption from the
intestines
C) It acts as a storage protein for the vitamin within the intestinal
epithelial cells
D) It acts as a cofactor for mucosal enzymes involved in absorption of the
vitamin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
12.
Which of the following is not among the common signs of pellagra?
A) Diarrhea
B) Dementia
C) Dermatitis
D) Desiccation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
13.
Which of the following is not a feature of vitamin D deficiency?
A) It causes a calcium deficiency
B) It causes excess iron absorption
C) It leads to overt signs only rarely
D) It leads to low blood calcium which in turn promotes seizures
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
14.
How is vitamin E thought to play a role in reducing the risk of heart
disease?
A) It inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol
B) It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins
C) It interferes with cholesterol synthesis by the liver
D) It speeds removal of blood cholesterol by the liver
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
15.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who
regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice?
A) Bone pain
B) Dermatitis
C) Skin yellowing
D) Vitamin A toxicity
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
16.
The main function of vitamin E in the body is to act as a(n)
A) peroxide.
B) coenzyme.
C) antioxidant.
D) free radical.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
17.
If a normal, healthy adult were to begin consuming a vitamin A-poor diet,
approximately how much time would pass before the first deficiency
symptoms would appear?
A) 2 weeks
B) 1 to 2 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 to 2 years
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
18.
To convert the number of tocopherol equivalents to alpha-tocopherol,
multiply by the factor
A) 0.8.
B) 1.4.
C) 2.0.
D) 3.3.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
19.
Keratinization of lung cells may result from
A) toxicity of vitamin A.
B) toxicity of beta-carotene.
C) deficiency of vitamin A.
D) deficiency of vitamin D.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
20.
Which of the following is the name of the vitamin A compound that is
active in the visual response?
A) Opsin
B) Keratin
C) Retinal
D) Carotene
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
21.
How many different forms of vitamin A are active in the body?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
22.
All of the following organs are required for the complete synthesis of
activated vitamin D except the
A) skin.
B) liver.
C) kidney.
D) intestines.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
23.
What are the known effects of raising animals on diets containing retinoic
acid as the only source of vitamin A?
A) Growth is stunted
B) Blindness develops
C) Retinal synthesis is stimulated
D) Retinol synthesis is stimulated
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
24.
Which of the following is associated with the condition known as xerosis?
A) Toxicity of vitamin A
B) Toxicity of beta-carotene
C) Deficiency of vitamin A
D) Deficiency of vitamin D
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
25.
What is the Adequate Intake level for vitamin D in individuals around 20
years of age?
A) 5 mg
B) 8 mg
C) 10 mg
D) 14 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
26.
Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the
amount ingested that day?
A) Intake is higher
B) Excretion is higher
C) Intake and excretion are equal
D) Excretion is unrelated to intake
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
27.
Anabolic drug treatments for osteoporosis work chiefly by
A) stimulating estrogen release.
B) enhancing osteoblast activity.
C) stimulating calcium absorption.
D) reducing renal calcium excretion.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
28.
What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body?
A) Activates andiotensin
B) Activates angiotensinogen
C) Helps with gastric digestion
D) Helps maintain acid-base balance
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
29.
Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium?
A) Fruits
B) Breads
C) Enriched grains
D) Certain green vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
30.
All of the following are good plant sources of calcium for the body except
A) spinach.
B) almonds.
C) corn tortillas.
D) sesame seeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
31.
Which of the following is a characteristic of caffeine intake and water
balance?
A) Caffeine inhibits water absorption from the GI tract
B) Caffeine is known to act as a diuretic only when consumed as coffee or
tea
C) Regular intake of caffeine promotes an increase in water retention of
the interstitial fluid volume
D) Habitual consumers of caffeine lose almost no more fluid from the body
than when ingesting noncaffeinated beverages
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
32.
Which of the following is a feature of calcium in the body?
A) High blood calcium levels correlate with tetany
B) Abnormal dietary calcium intakes promote calcium rigor
C) Higher calcium intakes correlate with lower body fatness
D) Efficiency of intestinal calcium absorption is similar for children and
adults
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
33.
Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements?
A) Can cause toxicity
B) Should always be taken with diuretics
C) Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure
D) Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
34.
Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
A) Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
C) High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
D) Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood
pressure
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
35.
What is the major intracellular cation?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Phosphate
D) Potassium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
36.
What adverse response is known to occur in people who drink copious
amounts of water while participating in intense physical activity?
A) Dehydration
B) Hyponatremia
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Elevated blood sodium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
37.
Which of the following minerals is least likely to be deficient in
anyone's diet?
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Chromium
D) Phosphorus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
38.
What is a goitrogen?
A) One of the hormones produced by the thyroid gland
B) A substance that enhances absorption of dietary iodide
C) A substance that interferes with the functioning of the thyroid gland
D) A compound used to supplement salt as a way to increase iodide intake
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
39.
What is the RDA for iron for females 19-50 years old?
A) 8 mg
B) 10 mg
C) 18 mg
D) 32 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
40.
All of the following are body proteins directly involved in iron
metabolism except
A) ferritin.
B) transferrin.
C) hemosiderin.
D) metallothionein.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
41.
If a person's body has a total of 5 grams of iron, how many grams would be
found in the hemoglobin?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
42.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iodine?
A) 200 mg
B) 450 mg
C) 1100 mg
D) 2000 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
43.
What type of anemia results from iron deficiency?
A) Hemolytic
B) Megaloblastic
C) Microcytic hypochromic
D) Macrocytic hyperchromic
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
44.
What is the ionic state of ferric iron?
A) +3
B) +2
C) -2
D) -3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
45.
Characteristics of manganese in nutrition include all of the following
except
A) plant foods are good sources.
B) deficiencies are seen primarily in the elderly.
C) absorption is inhibited by calcium supplements.
D) toxicity is more common from environmental contamination than from the
diet.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
46.
Your cousin Emily is a vegetarian. Since you have just learned in your
nutrition class that nonheme iron is absorbed less efficiently than heme
iron, you want to make sure Emily is getting enough iron. What should you
recommend Emily do to maximize her iron absorption?
A) Choose spinach as her main source of iron
B) Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of milk
C) Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of orange juice
D) Refrain from any major activity after eating to aid
digestion/absorption of iron
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
47.
The erythrocyte protoporphyrin level is used as an indicator of
A) late iron toxicity.
B) early iron toxicity.
C) late iron deficiency.
D) early iron deficiency.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
48.
An enzyme in which zinc or copper is an integral part of its structure is
classified as a(n)
A) metalloenzyme.
B) oxidoreductase.
C) cytochromidase.
D) metallothionase.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
49.
Deficiency of which of the following minerals is associated with retarded
growth and sexual development in children?
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Iodine
D) Chromium
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
50.
Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of iron per
serving?
A) Yogurt
B) Skim milk
C) Pinto beans
D) American cheese
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
1.
All of the following are consequences of ingesting excess vitamin C
supplements except
A) they frequently cause diarrhea.
B) they appear safe at levels up to 2000 mg/day.
C) they enhance the action of anticlotting medications.
D) they interfere with laboratory urine tests for the diagnosis of
diabetes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
2.
Nicole is pregnant and is trying to monitor her folate intake. She is
eating foods high in folate as well as taking folate supplements, and she
is having a hard time determining how many dietary folate equivalents she
is consuming. Below is a list of her daily intake with respect to folate:
cup of cooked lentils (180 mg food folate)
cup of fresh orange juice (60 mg food folate)
folate supplement (200 mg)
How many DFEs is Nicole consuming?
A) 440
B) 480
C) 540
D) 580
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
3.
Which of the following vitamins has an RDA?
A) Biotin
B) Choline
C) Cobalamin
D) Pantothenic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
4.
A person who shuns dairy and spends most of her time indoors would likely
benefit from a supplement of
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin B6.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin D.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
5.
The absorption of which of the following vitamins is most affected by the
disorder atrophic gastritis?
A) Choline
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B12
D) Pantothenic acid
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
6.
Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin?
A) Thiaminacide
B) Thiamin pyrophosphate
C) Thiamin adenine dinucleotide
D) Thiamin flavin mononucleotide
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
7.
All of the following are general characteristics of the fat-soluble
vitamins except
A) excesses are eliminated from the kidneys.
B) absorption is via the lymphatic circulation.
C) several of them require protein carriers for transport.
D) they can be stored in relatively large amounts in certain body tissues.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
8.
Which of the following is known to perform an essential function in the
human body?
A) Carnitine
B) Orotic acid
C) Methoxantin
D) Pangamic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
9.
Which of the following is a characteristic of thiamin nutrition?
A) The coenzyme contains pyrosulfate
B) It is required for regeneration of folate
C) It is required for regeneration of niacin
D) It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
10.
What is the RDA for folate for a woman weighing 132 pounds?
A) 180 mg
B) 220 mg
C) 242 mg
D) 400 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
11.
Normally, the body's storage and re-utilization of vitamin B12 prevents a
primary or secondary deficiency from occurring until after about
A) 3 days.
B) 3 weeks.
C) 3 months.
D) 3 years.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
12.
Which of the following contains the highest concentration of thiamin in
muscle tissue?
A) Pig
B) Fish
C) Steer
D) Chicken
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
13.
A person seeking good sources of vitamin A would select all of the
following except
A) liver.
B) bananas.
C) apricots.
D) sweet potatoes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
14.
Vitamin A supplements are helpful in treating which of the following
conditions?
A) Acne
B) Rickets
C) Osteomalacia
D) Night blindness
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
15.
Which of the following is not among the features of the fat-soluble
vitamins?
A) Require bile for absorption
B) Found in the fat and oily parts of foods
C) Transported permanently to the liver and adipose tissue
D) Pose a greater risk for developing a toxicity than water-soluble
vitamins
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
16.
What is the name of the vitamin D-deficiency disease in adults?
A) Rickets
B) Osteomalacia
C) Keratomalacia
D) Hyperkeratosis
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
17.
Which of the following provides the least amount of precursor vitamin A?
A) Corn
B) Spinach
C) Carrots
D) Cantaloupe
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
18.
The first detectable sign of vitamin A deficiency is usually
A) xerosis.
B) xerophthalmia.
C) night blindness.
D) corneal keratinization.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
19.
Which of the following describes the primary function of vitamin A in bone
health?
A) It stimulates uptake of calcium from the intestines
B) It promotes synthesis of specific bone proteins involved in the
mineralization process
C) It assists enzymes that degrade certain regions of the bone thereby
allowing remodeling to occur
D) It inhibits oxidation of bone mucopolysaccharides thereby preserving
bone crystal integrity and promoting growth
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
20.
In what tissue(s) must a molecule of vitamin D be chemically altered to
yield a compound that is fully active?
A) Liver only
B) Kidney only
C) Liver and kidney
D) Liver and intestines
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
21.
All of the following are other names for vitamin D except
A) calciferol.
B) calcitonin.
C) cholecalciferol.
D) dihydroxy vitamin D.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
22.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D?
A) The bioavailability of vitamin D from soy milk is low
B) Lifeguards on southern beaches have increased risk for vitamin D
toxicity
C) Most adults living in the southern United States need small amounts of
dietary vitamin D
D) The average consumption in the United States does not meet the
recommended intake
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
23.
Which of the following may result from excessive intakes of vitamin D by
adults?
A) Increased bone density
B) Increased bone calcification
C) Deformity of leg bones, ribs, and skull
D) Mineral deposits in soft tissues such as the kidney
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
24.
Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamin D nutrition?
A) Vitamin D deficiency may be created by a calcium deficiency
B) Only about one-half of the world's population relies on sunlight to
maintain adequate vitamin D nutrition
C) Prolonged exposure to sunlight degrades the vitamin D precursor in
skin, thus preventing vitamin D toxicity
D) In people living in northern U.S. cities, vitamin D stores from
synthesis during the summer are usually sufficient to meet the needs
during the winter
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
25.
The adult RDA for vitamin A is approximately
A) 400 mg.
B) 1,000 mg.
C) 800 retinol activity equivalents.
D) 5,000 retinol activity equivalents.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
26.
A friend shows you a newspaper article titled "Magnesium's Role in ATP
Synthesis." You explain that
A) magnesium does not play a role in ATP synthesis.
B) it is not magnesium but manganese that plays the role in ATP synthesis.
C) magnesium serves as a catalyst in the reaction that adds the last
phosphate to ATP.
D) there are three magnesium groups within the ATP structure that help it
do its work.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
27.
Which of the following represents the least likely cause for an abnormal
blood calcium level?
A) Diseases of the liver
B) Diseases of the kidney
C) Insufficient dietary intake
D) Altered secretion of parathyroid hormone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
28.
Which of the following is a general characteristic of sodium in processed
foods?
A) Instant chocolate pudding is a low-sodium food
B) Processed foods contribute less than half of the sodium in our diets
C) Salted peanuts contain less sodium than cereals on a per-gram basis
D) Dairy products and meats represent major sources of sodium in our diets
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
29.
Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium?
A) Fruits
B) Breads
C) Enriched grains
D) Certain green vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
30.
What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body?
A) Activates andiotensin
B) Activates angiotensinogen
C) Helps with gastric digestion
D) Helps maintain acid-base balance
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
31.
How much calcium (mg) would typically be absorbed by a normal adult with a
calcium intake of 1,000 mg?
A) 100
B) 300
C) 600
D) 950
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
32.
All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except
A) thirst.
B) fatigue.
C) weakness.
D) spastic muscles.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
33.
The outer, hard shell of bone is called
A) cortical bone.
B) dolomitic bone.
C) trabecular bone.
D) hydroxyl bone.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
34.
Calcium absorption is facilitated by the presence of
A) fiber.
B) lactose.
C) phytic acid.
D) oxalic acid.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
35.
Among the following groups, which has the highest percentage of body
water?
A) Elderly
B) Children
C) Obese people
D) Female adolescents
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
36.
Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as
A) hypertension.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) water intoxication.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
37.
What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of
varying concentrations are separated by a membrane?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Osmotic pressure
D) Hypertonic pressure
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
38.
What is the origin of goitrogens in the diet?
A) Naturally occurring
B) Food industry additives
C) Excessive use of fortified salt
D) Hydrogenation of certain minerals
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
39.
What is the RDA for iron for females 19-50 years old?
A) 8 mg
B) 10 mg
C) 18 mg
D) 32 mg
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
40.
Zinc is known to play an important role in all of the following functions
except
A) wound healing.
B) synthesis of retinal.
C) production of sperm.
D) oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
41.
What mineral is part of vitamin B12?
A) Copper
B) Cobalt
C) Nickel
D) Vanadium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
42.
All of the following are recognized symptoms of zinc deficiency except
A) anemia.
B) altered taste acuity.
C) impaired vision in dim light.
D) increased susceptibility to infection.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
43.
What is the bioavailability of dietary zinc?
A) 2-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 15-40%
D) 50-60%
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
44.
Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth?
A) Excessive fluoride in the water
B) Insufficient fluoride in the water
C) Excessive intake of simple sugars
D) Inability of the body to absorb fluoride
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
45.
What formulation of zinc has been found effective in treating the symptoms
of the common cold?
A) Zinc chelator
B) Zinc gluconate
C) Zinc plus ferrous iron
D) Zinc plus copper salt
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
46.
How would the body typically respond to loss of blood from hemorrhage?
A) More transferrin is produced to allow absorption and transport of more
iron
B) The average life of the red blood cell is increased in order to allow
better tissue oxygenation
C) Fewer iron storage proteins are produced, which increases the amount of
iron available for synthesis of new red blood cells
D) The liver and muscles release their supply of stored red blood cells,
which compensates, in part, for the decrease in red blood cell
concentration of the circulation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
47.
What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones?
A) Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis
B) Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens
C) Control the rate of oxygen use by cells
D) Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
48.
Approximately how much iron is lost daily by adults from urine, sweat, and
shed skin?
A) 1 mg
B) 5 mg
C) 12 mg
D) 18 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
49.
Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of iron per
serving?
A) Yogurt
B) Skim milk
C) Pinto beans
D) American cheese
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
50.
When calculating the amount of iron that can be absorbed from a meal, all
of the following factors are of major importance except
A) EDTA content.
B) phytate content.
C) vitamin C content.
D) MFP factor content.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
1.
Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest
contribution to riboflavin intake?
A) Milk
B) Potatoes
C) Orange juice
D) Peanut butter
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
2.
While researching your southern family history, you find that your
grandmother had a sister who died fairly young. The symptoms leading up to
her death included diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Because the family
led a poor, corn-farming existence, you suspect this relative died of
A) scurvy.
B) cancer.
C) pellagra.
D) beriberi.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
3.
A low-protein diet in which corn is a principal food has been found to
cause a deficiency of what vitamin?
A) Niacin
B) Thiamin
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin B12
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
4.
Folate deficiency has been reported in infants fed
A) soy milk.
B) goat's milk.
C) chicken liver.
D) infant formula.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
5.
Which of the following provides the most thiamin per serving size?
A) Ham
B) Squash
C) Whole milk
D) Whole-grain breads
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
6.
Which of the following foods provides ample amounts of vitamin C?
A) Tofu
B) Yogurt
C) Legumes
D) Broccoli
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
7.
Riboflavin in its coenzyme form functions in the transfer of
A) methyl groups.
B) 1-carbon units.
C) 2-carbon units.
D) hydrogen atoms.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
8.
Which of the following vitamins is stored primarily in muscle tissue?
A) Biotin
B) Folate
C) Vitamin B6
D) Pantothenic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
9.
Pteroylglutamic acid is known as
A) folate.
B) choline.
C) inositol.
D) pyridoxamine.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
10.
The coenzyme FAD is formed from what vitamin?
A) Niacin
B) Choline
C) Thiamin
D) Riboflavin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
11.
Which of the following is a common treatment for pernicious anemia caused
by inadequate absorption?
A) Injection of cobalamin
B) Topical administration of liver extract
C) Oral supplements of B-vitamin complex
D) A diet high in liver and green, leafy vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
12.
The vitamin deficiency disease pellagra means
A) "rough skin."
B) "paralyzed limbs."
C) "demented behavior."
D) "flattened erythrocytes."
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
13.
Greg says that he usually eats 1 medium carrot every day to ensure that
he's consuming enough vitamin A. Today he said he didn't eat any carrots
and is worried that there is not enough vitamin A in his system. What
would you say to Greg to allay his fear?
A) "Take a vitamin A supplement as soon as you can!"
B) "As long as you eat some chicken tonight you will not develop chicken
eyes."
C) "Well, there isn't any vitamin A in carrots so you probably haven't
consumed vitamin A for some time now."
D) "Don't worry; fat-soluble vitamins are stored in the body. It takes a
lot longer than one day to develop any adverse effects."
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
14.
All of the following are features of vitamin K in nutrition except
A) infants frequently require a supplement at birth.
B) good food sources are plants of the cabbage family.
C) risk of deficiency is increased in people taking antibiotics for
prolonged periods.
D) gut microflora synthesis supplies sufficient amounts to meet the needs
of most healthy adults.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
15.
All of the following are other names for vitamin D except
A) calciferol.
B) calcitonin.
C) cholecalciferol.
D) dihydroxy vitamin D.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
16.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K?
A) Deficiencies lead to intravascular clotting
B) Major dietary sources are whole grains and legumes
C) No adverse effects have been reported with high intakes
D) Primary deficiencies are more common than secondary deficiencies
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
17.
Knowing the role of vitamin K in the body, in what organ would you expect
to find it in large quantities?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Gallbladder
D) Small intestine
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
18.
Substances that promote oxidation are usually termed
A) prooxidants.
B) antioxidants.
C) free radical generators.
D) reactive electron oxidants.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
19.
In what chief capacity does vitamin K function?
A) Blood clotting
B) Energy metabolism
C) Calcium utilization
D) Epithelial tissue renewal
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
20.
Which of the following properties do vitamins D and K share?
A) Both are synthesized in the body
B) Both are required for normal vision
C) Neither has an effect on bone metabolism
D) Neither has an effect on erythrocyte function
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
21.
Which of the following conditions is known to lead to formation of mineral
deposits in the blood vessels and kidney?
A) Excessive intake of vitamin D
B) Inadequate intake of vitamin D
C) Excessive intake of tocopherols
D) Inadequate intake of tocopherols
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
22.
Which of the following describes an event in the visual response process?
A) Light energy strikes the retina and excites pigments to release retinal
B) Light energy strikes the cornea and excites pigments to release
retinoic acid
C) Visual pigments deep in the brain are excited by light transmitted
through the retina
D) Epithelial cells on the surface of the eye respond to light energy by
transmitting opsin molecules along nerve pathways to the brain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
23.
What is the adult AI for vitamin K?
A) 45-60 mg
B) 90-120 mg
C) 150-300 mg
D) 500-550 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
24.
Which of the following features are shared by Retin-A and Accutane?
A) They are teratogenic
B) They are highly toxic
C) They are usually taken orally
D) They have chemical structures similar to vitamin A
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
25.
Approximately how many children worldwide have vitamin A deficiency?
A) 5 million
B) 25 million
C) 250 million
D) 500 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
26.
Which of the following is a major function of chloride?
A) Participates in wound healing
B) Helps maintain gastric acidity
C) Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
D) Protects bone structures against degeneration
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
27.
Anabolic drug treatments for osteoporosis work chiefly by
A) stimulating estrogen release.
B) enhancing osteoblast activity.
C) stimulating calcium absorption.
D) reducing renal calcium excretion.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
28.
For optimal utilization of calcium supplements, it is best to take them
several times a day, in doses up to
A) 100 mg.
B) 200 mg.
C) 500 mg.
D) 800 mg.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
29.
Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium?
A) Fruits
B) Breads
C) Enriched grains
D) Certain green vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
30.
Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst?
A) Brain stem
B) Cerebellum
C) Optic nerve
D) Hypothalamus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
31.
The primary mechanism by which soy consumption may lower the risk for
osteoporosis is related to
A) greater kidney retention of calcium.
B) the presence of bioavailable calcium.
C) more stable hydroxyapatite crystal formation.
D) the estrogen-like activity of soy phytochemicals.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
32.
Which of the following does not serve as a major regulator of fluid
balance in the body?
A) Sodium
B) Chloride
C) Calcium
D) Potassium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
33.
Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus in nutrition?
A) Dietary sources include fresh vegetables
B) Dietary deficiencies are virtually unknown
C) Absorption is known to be reduced by soft drink consumption
D) Its participation in bone synthesis requires equivalent intake of
dietary calcium
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
34.
Approximately how much water is in a loaf of bread?
A) 2% of the loaf
B) 5% of the loaf
C) 20% of the loaf
D) 35% of the loaf
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
35.
To minimize the risk of calcium toxicity, total daily intakes should be
held to a maximum of
A) 500 mg.
B) 1,000 mg.
C) 2,500 mg.
D) 5,000 mg.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
36.
Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium?
A) Milk
B) Spinach
C) Broccoli
D) Pinto beans
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
37.
The outer, hard shell of bone is called
A) cortical bone.
B) dolomitic bone.
C) trabecular bone.
D) hydroxyl bone.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
38.
One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism
of
A) iron.
B) proteins.
C) carbohydrates.
D) metallothionein.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
39.
Chromium deficiency is characterized by
A) hypertension.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) enlargement of the liver.
D) enlargement of the thyroid gland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
40.
Which of the following is a property of selenium in nutrition?
A) It participates in the functioning of insulin
B) Severe deficiency is associated with heart disease in China
C) Significant food sources include dairy and unprocessed vegetables
D) It has no RDA but the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake is
only 2-3 mg/day
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
41.
Which of the following would most likely result from an excessive intake
of iodine?
A) Diarrhea
B) Skin rashes
C) Dehydration
D) Thyroid gland enlargement
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
42.
What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones?
A) Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis
B) Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens
C) Control the rate of oxygen use by cells
D) Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
43.
All of the following are recognized symptoms of zinc deficiency except
A) anemia.
B) altered taste acuity.
C) impaired vision in dim light.
D) increased susceptibility to infection.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
44.
The most common cause of iodine deficiency is
A) insufficient intake of iodine from foods.
B) overconsumption of other trace elements.
C) overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances.
D) pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
45.
What is the bioavailability of dietary zinc?
A) 2-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 15-40%
D) 50-60%
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
46.
Which of the following characteristics are shared by copper and fluoride?
A) Both may be obtained from drinking tap water
B) Both serve as cofactors for a number of enzymes
C) Neither is involved in the integrity of bones and teeth
D) Neither is known to be toxic at intakes of 10 times the estimated safe
and adequate dietary intake
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
47.
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper?
A) Chicken
B) Shellfish
C) Beefsteak
D) Hamburger
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
48.
What is the ionic state of ferrous iron?
A) -2
B) -1
C) +1
D) +2
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
49.
Which of the following is known to regulate the absorption of zinc?
A) Metallothionein in the intestinal cells
B) Zinc-releasing enzymes in the intestinal mucosa
C) Pancreatic juice containing zinc-absorption enhancers
D) Bile acids which form a complex with zinc to promote its absorption
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
50.
Which of the following would be the minimum amount of dietary iron known
to impair zinc absorption in an individual with a zinc intake of 15 mg?
A) 5 mg
B) 15 mg
C) 30 mg
D) 60 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
1.
Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses
of
A) vitamin B1.
B) vitamin B2.
C) vitamin B6.
D) vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
2.
Which of the following is a feature of niacin nutrition?
A) Low doses may lead to kidney stones
B) High doses may lower blood cholesterol
C) Low doses may lead to heartburn and low blood pressure
D) High doses may elevate red blood cell count in mildly anemic
individuals
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
3.
The nasal spray route represents a safe and efficacious means for the
supply of
A) folate.
B) vitamin B1.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
4.
Features of biotin in nutrition include all of the following except
A) it functions in the breakdown of amino acids and fatty acids.
B) it functions as a carrier of carbon dioxide in energy metabolism.
C) a deficiency can be induced by ingesting large quantities of raw egg
whites.
D) a deficiency can be induced by ingesting large amounts of thiamin and
folic acid, which interfere with its absorption.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
5.
Which of the following is probably required in the diet of human beings?
A) Choline
B) Inositol
C) Lipoic acid
D) Pangamic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
6.
Which of the following statements is representative of vitamin
supplementation practices?
A) Most people who take supplements consume a poor diet
B) Most people should take supplements daily because of the great
difficulty in obtaining the needed amounts from food
C) People who have low energy intakes or are pregnant are at risk for
developing deficiencies and may benefit from supplementation
D) People should take supplements daily because nutrition surveys in the
U.S. and Canada have detected deficiencies in some population groups
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
7.
The chief symptoms of early vitamin B6 deficiency include
A) confusion and depression.
B) muscle cramps and stiffness.
C) profound fatigue and anemia.
D) hyperactivity and shortness of breath.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
8.
Which of the following is a feature of folate nutrition?
A) The coenzyme form is FAD
B) Dairy foods are a poor source of folate except for goat's milk
C) Insufficient folate intake results in deficiency of homocysteine
D) Synthetic folate is 70% more available than naturally occurring food
folate
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
9.
A common drug for the treatment of tuberculosis is known to markedly
interfere in the metabolism of vitamin
A) B6.
B) B12.
C) C.
D) D.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
10.
In what capacity does vitamin C function?
A) Coenzyme for energy release
B) Cofactor in collagen formation
C) Cofactor with calcium in blood coagulation
D) Coenzyme in the formation of red blood cells
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
11.
Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of folate?
A) Hemolysis
B) Hypoxemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Macrocytic anemia
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
12.
All of the following are features of vitamin B6 metabolism except
A) a deficiency or toxicity leads to depression.
B) its destruction and excretion are promoted by alcohol intake.
C) it functions primarily as the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate.
D) it enhances physical performance when supplied at a level of l mg/g of
dietary protein.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
13.
Why shouldn't a 7-month pregnant woman be prescribed Accutane?
A) It may aggravate existing edema
B) It may lead to prolongation of labor
C) It is a teratogen and can be harmful to the baby
D) It contains high concentrations of vitamin D that can cause birth
defects
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
14.
Which of the following functions is shared by beta-carotene and vitamin E?
A) Inhibition of oxidation
B) Prevention of keratinization
C) Inhibition of bone calcium loss
D) Prevention of hemolytic anemia
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
15.
Why are vitamin E deficiencies rarely observed in human beings?
A) The vitamin is not essential
B) The vitamin is widespread in foods
C) Most people take vitamin E supplements
D) The vitamin can be synthesized by the body
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
16.
All of the following organs are required for the complete synthesis of
activated vitamin D except the
A) skin.
B) liver.
C) kidney.
D) intestines.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
17.
Which of the following is characteristic of the tocopherols?
A) Good food sources include lean meats and dairy
B) The various tocopherols perform similar roles in the body
C) They are usually found in foods high in polyunsaturated fats
D) The various tocopherol compounds can be converted to the active alpha-
tocopherol
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
18.
Which of the following is known to require vitamin K for its synthesis?
A) Albumin
B) GI mucosa
C) Prothrombin
D) Mucopolysaccharides
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
19.
Keratinization of lung cells may result from
A) toxicity of vitamin A.
B) toxicity of beta-carotene.
C) deficiency of vitamin A.
D) deficiency of vitamin D.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
20.
The first detectable sign of vitamin A deficiency is usually
A) xerosis.
B) xerophthalmia.
C) night blindness.
D) corneal keratinization.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
21.
Which of the following is a characteristic of carotenoids in foods?
A) Most carotenoids can be converted to vitamin A
B) The carotenoid with the highest conversion rate to vitamin A is
lycopene
C) Carotenoid absorption efficiency from salads is higher when regular
dressing is used compared with low-fat dressing
D) Carotenoid absorption is inhibited by foods rich in chlorophyll
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
22.
What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal
epithelial cell to the circulation?
A) Albumin
B) Cholesterol
C) Chylomicrons
D) Liposoluble binding proteins
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
23.
Which of the following is not a feature of vitamin D nutrition?
A) A dietary source is oily fish
B) The DRI fails to account for skin synthesis of vitamin D
C) Excessive exposure to the sun increases risk for vitamin D toxicity
D) People who are not outdoors are advised to drink at least 2 cups of
vitamin D-fortified milk daily
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
24.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who
regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice?
A) Bone pain
B) Dermatitis
C) Skin yellowing
D) Vitamin A toxicity
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
25.
Which of the following describes the primary function of vitamin A in bone
health?
A) It stimulates uptake of calcium from the intestines
B) It promotes synthesis of specific bone proteins involved in the
mineralization process
C) It assists enzymes that degrade certain regions of the bone thereby
allowing remodeling to occur
D) It inhibits oxidation of bone mucopolysaccharides thereby preserving
bone crystal integrity and promoting growth
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
26.
Which of the following is not known to be a risk factor for osteoporosis
in men?
A) High BMI
B) Alcohol abuse
C) Corticosteroid use
D) Low testosterone levels
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
27.
The strongest predictor for loss of bone density is a person's
A) sex.
B) age.
C) calcium intake.
D) blood estrogen level.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
28.
Which of the following is the primary function of potassium?
A) Participates in wound healing
B) Helps maintain gastric acidity
C) Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
D) Protects bone structures against degeneration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
29.
Habitual intake of soft water is most likely to aggravate
A) scurvy.
B) diabetes.
C) hypertension.
D) megaloblastic anemia.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
30.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of alcohol and bone health?
A) Alcohol intake promotes urinary calcium loss
B) Even moderate alcohol intake reduces bone density
C) Bone breakdown is enhanced from excess alcohol consumption
D) Hormones involved in bone maintenance are adversely affected by alcohol
intake
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
31.
As far as is known, which of the following is not a process that directly
involves calcium?
A) pH regulation
B) Blood clotting
C) Nerve transmission
D) Maintenance of heart beat
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
32.
Which of the following is not a feature of body weight and bone health?
A) Weight loss adversely affects bone density
B) Negative energy balance typically reduces calcium absorption
C) A low-calcium diet promotes similar bone loss in normal and overweight
people
D) People with BMIs over 30 have denser bones than their counterparts with
BMIs around 25
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
33.
Magnesium is known to be involved in all of the following except
A) blood clotting.
B) muscle contraction.
C) prevention of dental caries.
D) production of red blood cells.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
34.
Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements?
A) Can cause toxicity
B) Should always be taken with diuretics
C) Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure
D) Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
35.
Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis?
A) It is most common in men over 45 years of age
B) It has virtually no effect on blood calcium levels
C) It results from short-term deprivation of dietary calcium
D) It causes significant alterations in the blood levels of parathormone
and calcitonin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
36.
What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person's
physical performance?
A) 1-2%
B) 3-4%
C) 5-9%
D) 10-15%
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
37.
Which of the following people are at known risk for potassium depletion?
A) Athletes who are body-builders
B) Construction workers in cold climates
C) Those who ingest low amounts of fresh fruits/vegetables
D) Those who consume insufficient amounts of salted foods
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
38.
Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth?
A) Excessive fluoride in the water
B) Insufficient fluoride in the water
C) Excessive intake of simple sugars
D) Inability of the body to absorb fluoride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
39.
What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine?
A) Iron
B) Copper
C) Iodine
D) Magnesium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
40.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for fluoride?
A) 10 mg
B) 25 mg
C) 60 mg
D) 100 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
41.
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron absorption?
A) MPF in plant foods enhances overall iron absorption
B) Ferritin in red meat interferes with ferrous iron absorption
C) Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron
D) Transferrin released from pancreatic juice regulates iron uptake from
mucosal cells
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
42.
Approximately how much iodized salt must be consumed to meet but not
exceed the RDA for iodine?
A) 1 mg
B) teaspoon
C) 1 teaspoon
D) 1 tablespoon
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
43.
What term designates foods that contain nonnutrient substances which may
provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition?
A) Health foods
B) Organic foods
C) Functional foods
D) Disease preventative foods
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
44.
The most common cause of iodine deficiency is
A) insufficient intake of iodine from foods.
B) overconsumption of other trace elements.
C) overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances.
D) pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
45.
Your aunt Thelma has been anemic for some time and was recently shown to
be deficient in copper. Which of the following explains the association of
copper and anemia?
A) Copper is required for hemoglobin synthesis
B) Copper plays a role in wound healing, which prevents excessive blood
loss
C) Anemia affects synthesis of protoporphyrin, which interferes with iron
absorption
D) Copper is known to protect against free radical formation, which
prevents excess damage of red blood cells
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
46.
You have just been elected mayor of Smalltownville, where the major source
of drinking water is from wells. What major health problem would be
expected among the children of Smalltownville?
A) Goiter
B) Dental caries
C) GI infections
D) Hemochromatosis
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
47.
What is the ionic state of ferrous iron?
A) -2
B) -1
C) +1
D) +2
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
48.
How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption when consumed in the same meal?
A) It activates transferrin
B) It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form
C) It releases iron from the proteins in the stomach
D) It complexes with iron and promotes mucosal transport
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
49.
Zinc is highest in foods that also contain a high amount of
A) fat.
B) fiber.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
50.
Approximately how much iron would be provided by a balanced diet supplying
2000 kcalories?
A) 3 mg
B) 6 mg
C) 12 mg
D) 30 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
1.
Which of the following provides the most thiamin per serving size?
A) Ham
B) Squash
C) Whole milk
D) Whole-grain breads
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
2.
What type of container is best for protecting the riboflavin content of
milk?
A) Airtight
B) Cardboard
C) Transparent glass
D) Translucent plastic
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
3.
The known dangers of taking vitamin supplements include all of the
following except
A) vitamin toxicity.
B) the taker may ignore warning signs of a disease.
C) the taker may feel a false sense of security and consume a poor diet.
D) pathogenic bacterial overgrowth of the large intestines leading to
increased risk of infection.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
4.
Which of the following would be a very good source of vitamin C for the
lacto-ovo-vegetarian?
A) Milk
B) Eggs
C) Broccoli
D) Whole-grain bread
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
5.
What is the approximate niacin RDA for adults?
A) 15 niacin equivalents
B) 30 niacin equivalents
C) 15 tryptophan equivalents
D) 30 tryptophan equivalents
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
6.
What is the most likely explanation for the impaired functioning of the GI
tract resulting from folate deficiency?
A) Since folate is required for bile synthesis, folate deficiency results
in insufficient bile production, thereby promoting fat malabsorption and
diarrhea
B) Since folate functions, in large part, in the process of cell renewal,
a deficiency slows mucosal cell replacement, thereby resulting in
decreased GI functioning
C) The anemia of folate deficiency results in decreased oxygen supply to
body tissues, with the intestines being particularly affected because of
their high metabolic activity
D) Since folate functions, in part, in the synthesis of pancreatic
digestive enzymes, a deficiency leads to decreased enzymatic capacity in
the intestines, thereby resulting in malabsorption
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
7.
Which of the following would be the poorest dietary source of vitamin C?
A) Liver
B) Potatoes
C) Whole grains
D) Cruciferous vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
8.
What is the adult RDA for folate (mg)?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 400
D) 800
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
9.
What is the function of intrinsic factor in vitamin B12 absorption?
A) It catalyzes release of the vitamin from its protein-bound form
B) It attaches to the vitamin, thereby allowing absorption from the
intestines
C) It acts as a storage protein for the vitamin within the intestinal
epithelial cells
D) It acts as a cofactor for mucosal enzymes involved in absorption of the
vitamin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
10.
Pernicious anemia results from a combination of lack of intrinsic factor
and
A) ariboflavonosis.
B) lack of hydrochloric acid.
C) lack of pancreatic vitaminases.
D) pharmacologic intakes of folate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
11.
Riboflavin needs are more difficult to meet when the diet is low in
A) meats.
B) grains.
C) vegetables.
D) dairy foods.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
12.
Which of the following is a property of vitamin B12?
A) It is efficiently recycled by the body
B) It is necessary for protection from pinpoint hemorrhages
C) It requires attachment to fatty acids for transport in the circulation
D) It is absorbed from the stomach with the aid of a special binding
protein
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
13.
The risk for vitamin D deficiency increases with advancing age for all of
the following reasons except reduced
A) exposure to sunlight.
B) milk intake of older people.
C) absorption of dietary vitamin D.
D) activation of vitamin D by the kidneys.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
14.
Which of the following is not known to promote vitamin D deficiency in the
elderly?
A) Consumption of little or no milk
B) Excessive use of hypertension medications
C) Wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen while outdoors
D) Diminished capacity of liver and kidney synthesis of activated vitamin
D
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
15.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K?
A) Deficiencies lead to intravascular clotting
B) Major dietary sources are whole grains and legumes
C) No adverse effects have been reported with high intakes
D) Primary deficiencies are more common than secondary deficiencies
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
16.
Which vitamin is routinely given as a single dose to newborns?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin E
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin B12
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
17.
The animal version of vitamin D is known as
A) ergocalciferol.
B) foliocalciferol.
C) cholecalciferol.
D) phyllocalciferol.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
18.
The adult RDA for vitamin A is approximately
A) 400 mg.
B) 1,000 mg.
C) 800 retinol activity equivalents.
D) 5,000 retinol activity equivalents.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
19.
Vitamin A supplements are helpful in treating which of the following
conditions?
A) Acne
B) Rickets
C) Osteomalacia
D) Night blindness
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
20.
All of the following are features of vitamin K in nutrition except
A) infants frequently require a supplement at birth.
B) good food sources are plants of the cabbage family.
C) risk of deficiency is increased in people taking antibiotics for
prolonged periods.
D) gut microflora synthesis supplies sufficient amounts to meet the needs
of most healthy adults.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
21.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D?
A) Toxicity from vitamin D may result from overexposure to the sun
B) Requirements are much higher in the elderly due to degenerative bone
diseases
C) Fortification of milk with the vitamin is common in order to provide
people with a reliable source
D) Absorption from most food sources is very poor, necessitating the
enrichment of grain products
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
22.
Studies in developing countries have demonstrated that the mortality rate
of children with measles can be significantly reduced by providing
supplements of
A) iron.
B) vitamin A.
C) folic acid.
D) phylloquinone.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
23.
How is vitamin E thought to play a role in reducing the risk of heart
disease?
A) It inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol
B) It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins
C) It interferes with cholesterol synthesis by the liver
D) It speeds removal of blood cholesterol by the liver
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
24.
The preferred unit of expression of vitamin A is the
A) milligram.
B) global unit.
C) international unit.
D) retinol activity equivalent.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
25.
Of the following, which would most readily induce a vitamin K deficiency?
A) Achlorhydria
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Presence of oxalic acid in food
D) Insufficient intake of green leafy vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
26.
What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids?
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Skeletal muscle
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
27.
The normal blood pH range is approximately
A) 6.80-7.15.
B) 6.98-7.12.
C) 7.35-7.45.
D) 7.55-8.55.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
28.
For optimal utilization of calcium supplements, it is best to take them
several times a day, in doses up to
A) 100 mg.
B) 200 mg.
C) 500 mg.
D) 800 mg.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
29.
Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
A) Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
C) High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
D) Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood
pressure
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
30.
Which of the following people are at known risk for potassium depletion?
A) Athletes who are body-builders
B) Construction workers in cold climates
C) Those who ingest low amounts of fresh fruits/vegetables
D) Those who consume insufficient amounts of salted foods
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
31.
Ions that carry a positive charge are called
A) anions.
B) cations.
C) mineralytes.
D) valence ions.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
32.
Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?
A) 34
B) 65
C) 80
D) 105
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
33.
What is the major source of dietary sulfur?
A) Fats
B) Protein
C) Mineral salts
D) Carbohydrates
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
34.
What is the major extracellular cation?
A) Sodium
B) Sulfate
C) Protein
D) Potassium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
35.
Which of the following represents the least likely cause for an abnormal
blood calcium level?
A) Diseases of the liver
B) Diseases of the kidney
C) Insufficient dietary intake
D) Altered secretion of parathyroid hormone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
36.
Which of the following is not a function of water in the body?
A) Lubricant
B) Source of energy
C) Maintains protein structure
D) Participant in chemical reactions
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
37.
All of the following characteristics are shared by calcium and magnesium
except
A) both are involved in blood clotting.
B) both are involved in bone formation.
C) both are found in abundance in dairy products.
D) both may result in tetany when blood levels become abnormally low.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
38.
A person with high blood levels of hepcidin responds by
A) decreasing iron absorption.
B) increasing iron absorption.
C) decreasing zinc absorption.
D) increasing zinc absorption.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
39.
What nutrient deficiency during pregnancy may give rise to a child with
cretinism?
A) Iodine
B) Copper
C) Chromium
D) Molybdenum
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
40.
What is the chief transport substance for zinc in the circulation?
A) Albumin
B) Metallothionein
C) Carbonic anhydrase
D) High-density lipoproteins
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
41.
About how much iron is absorbed from a vegetarian diet compared with an
omnivorous diet?
A) The same
B) One-half as much
C) Twice as much
D) Three times as much
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
42.
Which of the following does not have an RDA?
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Iodine
D) Fluoride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
43.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iodine?
A) 200 mg
B) 450 mg
C) 1100 mg
D) 2000 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
44.
What is the bioavailability of dietary zinc?
A) 2-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 15-40%
D) 50-60%
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
45.
Which of the following is a property of selenium in nutrition?
A) It participates in the functioning of insulin
B) Severe deficiency is associated with heart disease in China
C) Significant food sources include dairy and unprocessed vegetables
D) It has no RDA but the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake is
only 2-3 mg/day
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
46.
Which of the following is a major binding protein for zinc?
A) Ligand
B) Ferritin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Metallothionein
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
47.
You have just been elected mayor of Smalltownville, where the major source
of drinking water is from wells. What major health problem would be
expected among the children of Smalltownville?
A) Goiter
B) Dental caries
C) GI infections
D) Hemochromatosis
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
48.
Under which of the following conditions are certain supplements of zinc
reported to be beneficial?
A) In the treatment of colds
B) In the treatment of Menkes syndrome
C) In the treatment of toxicity from certain other metals
D) In the treatment of slow growth syndrome in U.S. children
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
49.
Absorption of iron from supplements is improved by taking them with
A) tea.
B) meat.
C) milk.
D) whole-grain bread.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
50.
An enzyme in which zinc or copper is an integral part of its structure is
classified as a(n)
A) metalloenzyme.
B) oxidoreductase.
C) cytochromidase.
D) metallothionase.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
1.
Which of the following diets is most likely to lead to beriberi?
A) High intakes of white rice
B) Low intakes of whole grains
C) High intakes of unrefined rice
D) Low intakes of enriched grains
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
2.
The coenzyme FAD is formed from what vitamin?
A) Niacin
B) Choline
C) Thiamin
D) Riboflavin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
3.
Physiological stresses such as blood loss, burns, measles, and cancer are
known particularly to increase the risk of deficiency for
A) biotin.
B) folate.
C) riboflavin.
D) pantothenic acid.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
4.
Normally, the body's storage and re-utilization of vitamin B12 prevents a
primary or secondary deficiency from occurring until after about
A) 3 days.
B) 3 weeks.
C) 3 months.
D) 3 years.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
5.
A similar type of anemia is produced when there is a deficiency of either
A) riboflavin or niacin.
B) vitamin B12 or folate.
C) thiamin or riboflavin.
D) vitamin B6 or vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
6.
People with the condition known as iron overload may be adversely affected
from taking supplements of
A) niacin.
B) retinol.
C) cobalamin.
D) ascorbic acid.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
7.
Which of the following food groups ordinarily contains the highest amount
of riboflavin when expressed per kcalorie?
A) Dairy
B) Meats
C) Fruits
D) Vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
8.
When the diet contains an adequate amount of protein, what amino acid can
be used by the body to synthesize niacin?
A) Lysine
B) Valine
C) Tryptophan
D) Phenylalanine
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
9.
Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?
A) Bleeding gums
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Appearance of a cold
D) Hysteria and depression
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
10.
A deficiency of what vitamin produces a characteristic cracking and
redness at the corners of the mouth?
A) Biotin
B) Niacin
C) Riboflavin
D) Ascorbic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
11.
Large doses of nicotinic acid are known to result in all of the following
except
A) dilation of capillaries.
B) increased HDL cholesterol.
C) lowering of LDL cholesterol.
D) disappearance of learning disorders in children.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
12.
Which of the following properties is shared by niacin and riboflavin
coenzymes?
A) Unstable to irradiation
B) Unstable to metal cooking utensils
C) Acceptance and transfer of hydrogen atoms
D) Acceptance and transfer of carboxyl groups
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
13.
What population group has the highest risk for vitamin K deficiency?
A) Adults
B) Elderly
C) Newborns
D) Teenagers
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
14.
Which of the following features are shared by Retin-A and Accutane?
A) They are teratogenic
B) They are highly toxic
C) They are usually taken orally
D) They have chemical structures similar to vitamin A
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
15.
Jennifer has just had a baby. When she brings Thomas home, she regales you
with the details of her hospital stay. She mentions that shortly after the
birth, Thomas received an intramuscular injection of vitamin K, and she
wondered why this was done, as it made him cry. You explained that it
A) was needed to prevent eye disease.
B) prevented possible bleeding events.
C) protected the baby from lipid oxidation.
D) was needed to promote good bone growth.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
16.
The main function of vitamin E in the body is to act as a(n)
A) peroxide.
B) coenzyme.
C) antioxidant.
D) free radical.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
17.
The major target organs for the action of activated vitamin D include all
of the following except the
A) liver.
B) bone.
C) kidney.
D) intestine.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
18.
Approximately what percent of the body's vitamin A stores are found in the
liver?
A) 20
B) 50
C) 70
D) 90
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
19.
How many micrograms of dietary beta-carotene are equivalent to 1 retinol
activity equivalent?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
20.
A person seeking good sources of vitamin A would select all of the
following except
A) liver.
B) bananas.
C) apricots.
D) sweet potatoes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
21.
The adult RDA for vitamin A is approximately
A) 400 mg.
B) 1,000 mg.
C) 800 retinol activity equivalents.
D) 5,000 retinol activity equivalents.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
22.
Which of the following may result from excessive intakes of vitamin D by
adults?
A) Increased bone density
B) Increased bone calcification
C) Deformity of leg bones, ribs, and skull
D) Mineral deposits in soft tissues such as the kidney
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
23.
How is vitamin E thought to play a role in reducing the risk of heart
disease?
A) It inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol
B) It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins
C) It interferes with cholesterol synthesis by the liver
D) It speeds removal of blood cholesterol by the liver
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
24.
Which of the following is a characteristic of free radicals?
A) They are destroyed by cigarette smoking
B) They arise from normal metabolic reactions
C) They typically stop chain reactions associated with the production of
peroxides
D) They are known to accumulate even in the presence of abundant
antioxidant nutrients
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
25.
Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?
A) Retinol
B) Tocopherol
C) Phylloquinone
D) Cyanocobalamin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
26.
In what decade of life does osteoporosis first begin in men and women?
A) Fourth
B) Fifth
C) Sixth
D) Seventh
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
27.
Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution?
A) Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
B) Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water
C) Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water
D) Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
28.
What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person's
physical performance?
A) 1-2%
B) 3-4%
C) 5-9%
D) 10-15%
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
29.
Calcium-binding protein acts within the
A) kidneys.
B) intestines.
C) cortical bone.
D) trabecular bone.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
30.
All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except
A) thirst.
B) fatigue.
C) weakness.
D) spastic muscles.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
31.
Tiffany is a strict vegan and does not consume calcium-rich plant foods
nor supplements of calcium. Which of the following is most responsible for
maintaining her blood calcium levels in the normal range?
A) Calcitonin
B) Calmodulin
C) Hydroxyapatite
D) Parathyroid hormone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
32.
What is another term for hypertension?
A) High blood sodium
B) High blood pressure
C) Excessive mental stress
D) Excessive muscular contraction
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
33.
For every man who has type I osteoporosis, about how many women have it?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
34.
Which of the following is not a feature of potassium deficiency?
A) It leads to hyperglycemia
B) It leads to higher blood pressure
C) It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes
D) It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
35.
Which of the following is a general property of the minerals?
A) When a food is burned, all the minerals are found in the ash
B) Absorption efficiency from foods is similar among the minerals
C) Minerals in food can be degraded by certain processing methods
D) Some minerals in food are destroyed by exposure to ultraviolet light
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
36.
Which of the following is a feature of sodium nutrition?
A) It has no AI because diets rarely lack sodium
B) It has no AI because the kidneys are highly efficient at regulating
sodium balance
C) The AI is 3 g, an amount that has been shown to have little or no
effect on blood pressure
D) The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an
unusually efficient retention mechanism
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
37.
Which of the following is not among the common food sources of potassium?
A) Cheeses
B) Potatoes
C) Fresh fruits
D) Orange juice
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
38.
What is hepcidin?
A) A factor in meats that enhances iron absorption
B) An intestinal mucosa protein that assists in iron turnover
C) A substance in legumes that interferes with iron absorption
D) A liver-derived hormone that helps regulate iron absorption and
transport
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
39.
Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for
iron?
A) Ferritin
B) Myoglobin
C) Transferrin
D) Hemoglobin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
40.
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper?
A) Chicken
B) Shellfish
C) Beefsteak
D) Hamburger
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
41.
Which of the following is a protein that carries iron through the
circulation to the tissues?
A) Albumin
B) Transferrin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Metallothionein
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
42.
Which of the following is found in the first stage of iron deficiency?
A) Iron stores decline, as assessed by serum ferritin
B) Hemoglobin levels fall, as assessed by complete blood count
C) Red blood cell count falls, as assessed by hematocrit count
D) Hemoglobin synthesis declines, as assessed by erythrocyte
protoporphyrin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
43.
Which of the following is a rich source of phytoestrogens?
A) Potatoes
B) Soybeans
C) Cold-water fish
D) Green, leafy vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
44.
An enzyme in which zinc or copper is an integral part of its structure is
classified as a(n)
A) metalloenzyme.
B) oxidoreductase.
C) cytochromidase.
D) metallothionase.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
45.
If cow's milk is found to contain unusually high levels of iodine, what is
the most likely explanation?
A) Storage of milk in galvanized tanks
B) Grazing of cows on high-iodine soils
C) Addition of fortified salt at the milk processing plant
D) Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
46.
One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism
of
A) iron.
B) proteins.
C) carbohydrates.
D) metallothionein.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
47.
Which of the following conditions is known to lead to copper deficiency?
A) Excess zinc
B) Excess protein
C) Insufficient iodine
D) Insufficient calcium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
48.
Which of the following minerals undergoes enteropancreatic circulation
during normal metabolism?
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Copper
D) Fluoride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
49.
Which of the following is known to regulate the absorption of zinc?
A) Metallothionein in the intestinal cells
B) Zinc-releasing enzymes in the intestinal mucosa
C) Pancreatic juice containing zinc-absorption enhancers
D) Bile acids which form a complex with zinc to promote its absorption
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
50.
Which of the following foods provides the greatest amount of iron per
serving?
A) Yogurt
B) Skim milk
C) Pinto beans
D) American cheese
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
1.
Which of the following would be the poorest dietary source of vitamin C?
A) Liver
B) Potatoes
C) Whole grains
D) Cruciferous vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
2.
What vitamin is involved intensively in amino acid metabolism?
A) Biotin
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin B6
D) Riboflavin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
3.
Why might vitamin C supplements be beneficial in treating the common cold?
A) They deactivate histamine
B) They reduce episodes of diarrhea
C) They destroy intestinal pathogens
D) They alter hypothalamic control of body temperature
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
4.
Which of the following is not a feature of folate nutrition?
A) Most food folate is bound to a string of amino acids
B) Folate is actively secreted back into the GI tract with bile
C) Food folate must be hydrolyzed by intestinal cell enzymes prior to
absorption
D) Folate must be methylated by homocysteine prior to crossing the brush
border membrane
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
5.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of vitamin B6 in nutrition?
A) It is stored in muscle tissue
B) It is required in amounts proportional to energy expenditure
C) It can lead to irreversible nerve damage when taken in large doses
D) It functions, in part, in the synthesis of glycine and glutamic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
6.
Those groups of people who are at risk for developing marginal nutrient
deficiencies and may benefit from taking vitamin supplements include all
of the following except
A) vegans
B) food faddists
C) athletes who are engaged in intense competitive events
D) people with low energy intakes, such as habitual dieters and the
elderly
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
7.
All of the following are features of vitamin B6 metabolism except
A) a deficiency or toxicity leads to depression.
B) its destruction and excretion are promoted by alcohol intake.
C) it functions primarily as the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate.
D) it enhances physical performance when supplied at a level of l mg/g of
dietary protein.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
8.
A deficiency of what vitamin produces a characteristic cracking and
redness at the corners of the mouth?
A) Biotin
B) Niacin
C) Riboflavin
D) Ascorbic acid
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
9.
The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome may be treated with supplements of
A) folacin.
B) thiamin.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
10.
When the diet contains an adequate amount of protein, what amino acid can
be used by the body to synthesize niacin?
A) Lysine
B) Valine
C) Tryptophan
D) Phenylalanine
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
11.
Which of the following represents the results of well-controlled studies
of vitamin C supplementation on the resistance to, and recovery from,
colds?
A) There was a reduction in the duration of colds by 50% on the average
B) There was only a minor effect on reducing the number and severity of
colds
C) There was a significant reduction in the duration of colds in people
who consumed at least one gram a day
D) There was a significant reduction in the number of colds only in people
who consumed more than three grams per day
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
12.
Which of the following is known to perform an essential function in the
human body?
A) Carnitine
B) Orotic acid
C) Methoxantin
D) Pangamic acid
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
13.
What is the name of the vitamin D-deficiency disease in adults?
A) Rickets
B) Osteomalacia
C) Keratomalacia
D) Hyperkeratosis
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
14.
Which of the following may result from excessive intakes of vitamin D by
adults?
A) Increased bone density
B) Increased bone calcification
C) Deformity of leg bones, ribs, and skull
D) Mineral deposits in soft tissues such as the kidney
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
15.
All of the following are other names for vitamin D except
A) calciferol.
B) calcitonin.
C) cholecalciferol.
D) dihydroxy vitamin D.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
16.
As far as is known, vitamin A does not play an important role in which of
the following processes?
A) Blood clotting
B) Growth of bones and teeth
C) Synthesis of visual pigment
D) Maintaining mucous membranes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
17.
What type of foods should be controlled in individuals taking
anticoagulant medicines?
A) Cold water fish
B) Processed soups
C) Enriched breads
D) Green leafy vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
18.
All of the following are characteristics of excess consumption of beta-
carotene except
A) overconsumption from foods is harmless.
B) overconsumption from supplements is harmless.
C) drinking alcohol worsens the adverse effects of supplements.
D) smoking cigarettes aggravates the detrimental effects of supplements.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
19.
The major target organs for the action of activated vitamin D include all
of the following except the
A) liver.
B) bone.
C) kidney.
D) intestine.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
20.
Which of the following shows the highest vitamin D activity?
A) Cholecalciferol
B) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
C) 25-Hydroxy vitamin D
D) 1,25-Dihydroxy vitamin D
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
21.
What part of the body is affected most by keratomalacia?
A) Bone
B) Liver
C) Cornea
D) Immune cells
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
22.
What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal
epithelial cell to the circulation?
A) Albumin
B) Cholesterol
C) Chylomicrons
D) Liposoluble binding proteins
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
23.
Substances that promote oxidation are usually termed
A) prooxidants.
B) antioxidants.
C) free radical generators.
D) reactive electron oxidants.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
24.
Which of the following foods is a very good source of vitamin A?
A) Corn
B) Pumpkin pie
C) Baked potato
D) Whole-grain bread
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
25.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K?
A) Deficiencies lead to intravascular clotting
B) Major dietary sources are whole grains and legumes
C) No adverse effects have been reported with high intakes
D) Primary deficiencies are more common than secondary deficiencies
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
26.
After age, what is the next strongest risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Sex
B) Tobacco use
C) Calcium intake
D) Physical activity level
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
27.
Salt-sensitive population groups include all of the following except
A) Caucasians.
B) African-Americans.
C) people with obesity.
D) people with diabetes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
28.
All of the following are known to have a high correlation with risk for
osteoporosis except
A) being thin.
B) being female.
C) having anorexia nervosa.
D) consuming a high-protein diet.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
29.
What minimum percentage of body weight loss as water results in fatigue,
weakness, and loss of appetite?
A) 1-2
B) 3-4
C) 5-6
D) 7-8
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
30.
Which of the following is not a feature of body weight and bone health?
A) Weight loss adversely affects bone density
B) Negative energy balance typically reduces calcium absorption
C) A low-calcium diet promotes similar bone loss in normal and overweight
people
D) People with BMIs over 30 have denser bones than their counterparts with
BMIs around 25
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
31.
Which of the following is characteristic of calcium nutrition in
teenagers?
A) The recommended intake is higher for girls than boys
B) The recommended intake is 800-1,000 mg for this population group
C) The intake of calcium is higher in boys than girls because they eat
more food
D) The dietary intakes of calcium are similar for girls and boys of this
population group
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
32.
Ions that carry a positive charge are called
A) anions.
B) cations.
C) mineralytes.
D) valence ions.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
33.
The outer, hard shell of bone is called
A) cortical bone.
B) dolomitic bone.
C) trabecular bone.
D) hydroxyl bone.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
34.
Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
A) Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
C) High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
D) Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood
pressure
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
35.
Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates?
A) Seeds and nuts
B) Processed cheeses
C) Fermented dairy products
D) Spinach and sweet potatoes
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
36.
All of the following are known to enhance calcium absorption from the GI
tract except
A) lactose.
B) oxalates.
C) pregnancy.
D) stomach acid.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
37.
Magnesium is known to be involved in all of the following except
A) blood clotting.
B) muscle contraction.
C) prevention of dental caries.
D) production of red blood cells.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
38.
All of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc except
A) absorption is inhibited by fiber.
B) absorption is inhibited by cow's milk.
C) transport in the blood is primarily by albumin.
D) absorption rises with increased needs of the body.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
39.
What is hepcidin?
A) A factor in meats that enhances iron absorption
B) An intestinal mucosa protein that assists in iron turnover
C) A substance in legumes that interferes with iron absorption
D) A liver-derived hormone that helps regulate iron absorption and
transport
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
40.
When calculating the amount of iron that can be absorbed from a meal, all
of the following factors are of major importance except
A) EDTA content.
B) phytate content.
C) vitamin C content.
D) MFP factor content.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
41.
What is the origin of goitrogens in the diet?
A) Naturally occurring
B) Food industry additives
C) Excessive use of fortified salt
D) Hydrogenation of certain minerals
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
42.
What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine?
A) Iron
B) Copper
C) Iodine
D) Magnesium
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
43.
Iron deficiency in children is likely to result from a diet that
overemphasizes
A) milk.
B) cereals.
C) vegetables.
D) dried beans.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
44.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals?
A) A deficiency sign common to many trace minerals is dermatitis
B) The amounts in foods are dependent, in part, on soil composition
C) Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults
D) The amount of all trace minerals in the average person totals
approximately 100 grams
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
45.
Which of the following is a feature of iron absorption?
A) It is lower in people with iron toxicity
B) It is higher in people with iron deficiency
C) It is lower when iron is in the form of heme rather than non-heme
D) It is higher in adults than children due to more mature intestinal
function
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
46.
Which of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc?
A) Neither functions in the maintenance of blood glucose
B) Neither is circulated from the pancreas to the intestines and back to
the pancreas
C) Both are absorbed into intestinal mucosal cells and bound to
metallothionein for transport first to the liver
D) Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost
by normal villus cell renewal processes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
47.
What is a glucose tolerance factor?
A) A protein that stimulates glycolysis
B) A mineral cofactor for a specific enzyme
C) A hormone that enhances pancreatic function
D) A small organic compound that promotes the action of insulin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
48.
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper?
A) Chicken
B) Shellfish
C) Beefsteak
D) Hamburger
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
49.
Deficiency of which of the following minerals is associated with retarded
growth and sexual development in children?
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Iodine
D) Chromium
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
50.
In the body, lead is known to significantly interfere with utilization of
all of the following minerals except
A) iron.
B) zinc.
C) calcium.
D) selenium.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
1.
Which of the following vitamins is known to sustain substantial losses
during processing of food?
A) Biotin
B) Niacin
C) Vitamin B12
D) Pantothenic acid
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
2.
The nasal spray route represents a safe and efficacious means for the
supply of
A) folate.
B) vitamin B1.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
3.
Because of adverse interactions with other vitamins, a safe daily folate
intake is up to
A) 400 mg.
B) 600 mg.
C) 1,000 mg.
D) 2,000 mg.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
4.
What is the adult Adequate Intake for biotin?
A) 3 mg
B) 30 mg
C) 3 mg
D) 30 mg
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
5.
Which of the following substances is known to adversely affect folate
utilization?
A) Insulin
B) Calcium supplements
C) Regular use of antacids
D) Vitamin B12 supplements
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
6.
Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect the
vitamin content of
A) folate.
B) thiamin.
C) vitamin A.
D) riboflavin.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
7.
Which of the following foods provides ample amounts of vitamin C?
A) Tofu
B) Yogurt
C) Legumes
D) Broccoli
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
8.
Which of the following is a property of niacin in nutrition?
A) It is susceptible to destruction in foods exposed to light
B) It participates primarily in reactions involving amino acids
C) It is soluble in both water and lipids depending upon its chemical form
D) It can be synthesized in the body from the essential amino acid
tryptophan
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
9.
Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses
of
A) vitamin B1.
B) vitamin B2.
C) vitamin B6.
D) vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
10.
What is a chief function of the B vitamins?
A) Antioxidation
B) Anticoagulation
C) Antibody stabilization
D) Coenzyme participation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
11.
A person with a disorder that limits absorption of bile is at increased
risk for deficiency of
A) folate.
B) niacin.
C) riboflavin.
D) ascorbic acid.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
12.
How many dietary folate equivalents are provided by 100 mg of a folate
supplement?
A) 50
B) 70
C) 133
D) 170
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
13.
What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D?
A) Promotes secretion of calcitonin
B) Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol
C) Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-
soluble vitamins
D) Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium
mobilization from bone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
14.
Knowing the role of vitamin K in the body, in what organ would you expect
to find it in large quantities?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Gallbladder
D) Small intestine
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
15.
In which of the following individuals would vitamin A toxicity be most
likely to occur?
A) Adolescent women
B) Overweight adults
C) Those taking vitamin A supplements
D) Those consuming more than 100 g of carrots daily
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
16.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K?
A) A deficiency increases the risk for hemophilia
B) A deficiency leads to keratinization of the cornea
C) Bacteria in the intestines synthesize bioavailable vitamin K
D) There are multiple forms in the diet of which menadione is the
naturally occurring form
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
17.
Which of the following provides the least amount of precursor vitamin A?
A) Corn
B) Spinach
C) Carrots
D) Cantaloupe
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
18.
Approximately what percentage of the body's store of vitamin K is derived
from GI tract bacterial synthesis?
A) Less than 5
B) 25
C) 50
D) 85
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
19.
Which of the following are major sources of vitamin E in the diet?
A) Meats
B) Citrus fruits
C) Vegetable oils
D) Milk and dairy products
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
20.
Keratinization of lung cells may result from
A) toxicity of vitamin A.
B) toxicity of beta-carotene.
C) deficiency of vitamin A.
D) deficiency of vitamin D.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
21.
In what system would the effects of a vitamin D deficiency be most readily
observed?
A) Nervous
B) Skeletal
C) Muscular
D) Circulatory
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
22.
Which of the following describes the primary function of vitamin A in bone
health?
A) It stimulates uptake of calcium from the intestines
B) It promotes synthesis of specific bone proteins involved in the
mineralization process
C) It assists enzymes that degrade certain regions of the bone thereby
allowing remodeling to occur
D) It inhibits oxidation of bone mucopolysaccharides thereby preserving
bone crystal integrity and promoting growth
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
23.
The major form of vitamin K in foods is known as
A) ergodione.
B) menadione.
C) tocopherone.
D) phylloquinone.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
24.
Which of the following describes an event in the visual response process?
A) Light energy strikes the retina and excites pigments to release retinal
B) Light energy strikes the cornea and excites pigments to release
retinoic acid
C) Visual pigments deep in the brain are excited by light transmitted
through the retina
D) Epithelial cells on the surface of the eye respond to light energy by
transmitting opsin molecules along nerve pathways to the brain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
25.
All of the following organs are required for the complete synthesis of
activated vitamin D except the
A) skin.
B) liver.
C) kidney.
D) intestines.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
26.
Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency?
A) Extreme thirst
B) Muscle weakness
C) Profound sweating
D) Lowered blood pressure
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
27.
What is the major source of dietary sulfur?
A) Fats
B) Protein
C) Mineral salts
D) Carbohydrates
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
28.
Which of the following is a feature of magnesium in nutrition?
A) Toxicity is common in people taking diuretics
B) High intakes interfere with stability of tooth enamel
C) The amounts present in hard water are poorly utilized
D) Average intakes from food are below recommendations
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
29.
What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?
A) Processed foods
B) Unprocessed foods
C) Natural salt content of foods
D) Salt added during cooking and at the table
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
30.
How much sodium is contained in a fast-food deluxe hamburger that lists a
salt content of 2.5 g?
A) 100 mg
B) 125 mg
C) 1,000 mg
D) 2,500 mg
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
31.
What is the major intracellular cation?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Phosphate
D) Potassium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
32.
How does antidiuretic hormone function?
A) It activates renin
B) It activates angiotension
C) It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
D) It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
33.
Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?
A) 34
B) 65
C) 80
D) 105
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
34.
Which of the following is a major function of chloride?
A) Participates in wound healing
B) Helps maintain gastric acidity
C) Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
D) Protects bone structures against degeneration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
35.
The strongest predictor for loss of bone density is a person's
A) sex.
B) age.
C) calcium intake.
D) blood estrogen level.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
36.
Sulfur is present in practically all
A) vitamins.
B) proteins.
C) fatty acids.
D) carbohydrates.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
37.
Among the following calcium supplements, which is most calcium-dense?
A) Calcium citrate
B) Calcium lactate
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Calcium gluconate
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
38.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate food source of iodide
for a person who lives inland?
A) Fresh-water fish
B) Iodized table salt
C) Locally grown produce
D) Plants of the cabbage family
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
39.
Goiter is caused primarily by a deficiency of
A) iron.
B) zinc.
C) iodine.
D) selenium.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
40.
Common terms that describe the body's accumulation of excess iron include
all of the following except
A) iron overload.
B) hemosiderosis.
C) hemoglobinemia.
D) hemochromatosis.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
41.
What term designates foods that contain nonnutrient substances which may
provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition?
A) Health foods
B) Organic foods
C) Functional foods
D) Disease preventative foods
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
42.
The rare genetic disorders Menkes disease and Wilson's disease result from
abnormal utilization of
A) iron.
B) zinc.
C) copper.
D) manganese.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
43.
What is the optimal fluoride concentration in community water supplies?
A) 1 ppm
B) 2 ppm
C) 2.5 ppm
D) 4 ppm
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
44.
Which of the following minerals is a cofactor in the formation of
hemoglobin?
A) Iodine
B) Copper
C) Sodium
D) Calcium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
45.
Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition?
A) A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism
B) Supplements are known to be helpful
C) Whole grains represent an excellent source
D) In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
46.
Which of the following is known to enhance iron absorption?
A) Tea
B) Coffee
C) Foods containing vitamin C
D) Foods containing vitamin E
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
47.
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except
A) phytates.
B) MFP factor.
C) soybean protein.
D) tannic acid in tea.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
48.
What type of anemia results from iron deficiency?
A) Hemolytic
B) Megaloblastic
C) Microcytic hypochromic
D) Macrocytic hyperchromic
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
49.
What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones?
A) Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis
B) Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens
C) Control the rate of oxygen use by cells
D) Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
50.
Which of the following foods should be especially limited in the diet of
individuals with hemochromatosis?
A) Dairy products
B) Fluoridated water
C) Iron-fortified cereals
D) Carbonated beverages
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
1.
All of the following are features of vitamin B6 metabolism except
A) a deficiency or toxicity leads to depression.
B) its destruction and excretion are promoted by alcohol intake.
C) it functions primarily as the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate.
D) it enhances physical performance when supplied at a level of l mg/g of
dietary protein.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
2.
Which of the following vitamins is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?
A) Folate
B) Biotin
C) Cyanocobalamin
D) Pantothenic acid
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
3.
Riboflavin in its coenzyme form functions in the transfer of
A) methyl groups.
B) 1-carbon units.
C) 2-carbon units.
D) hydrogen atoms.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
4.
Among the following, which would be the best source of niacin equivalents?
A) Milk
B) Broccoli
C) Chicken
D) Strawberries
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
5.
While researching your southern family history, you find that your
grandmother had a sister who died fairly young. The symptoms leading up to
her death included diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Because the family
led a poor, corn-farming existence, you suspect this relative died of
A) scurvy.
B) cancer.
C) pellagra.
D) beriberi.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
6.
All of the following are general characteristics of the fat-soluble
vitamins except
A) excesses are eliminated from the kidneys.
B) absorption is via the lymphatic circulation.
C) several of them require protein carriers for transport.
D) they can be stored in relatively large amounts in certain body tissues.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
7.
Which of the following food groups is a rich source of vitamin C?
A) Milk group
B) Meat group
C) Fruit group
D) Bread-cereal group
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
8.
Which of the following provides the most thiamin per serving size?
A) Ham
B) Squash
C) Whole milk
D) Whole-grain breads
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
9.
Which of the following is a property of vitamin B12?
A) It is efficiently recycled by the body
B) It is necessary for protection from pinpoint hemorrhages
C) It requires attachment to fatty acids for transport in the circulation
D) It is absorbed from the stomach with the aid of a special binding
protein
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
10.
The protein that requires ascorbic acid for its formation is
A) keratin.
B) albumin.
C) collagen.
D) hydroxyproline.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
11.
A similar type of anemia is produced when there is a deficiency of either
A) riboflavin or niacin.
B) vitamin B12 or folate.
C) thiamin or riboflavin.
D) vitamin B6 or vitamin B12.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
12.
Which of the following is frequently affected by deficiencies of the B
vitamins?
A) Bones
B) Tongue
C) Eyesight
D) Hair and nails
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
13.
Approximately how many children worldwide have vitamin A deficiency?
A) 5 million
B) 25 million
C) 250 million
D) 500 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
14.
Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on
ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. Once
there, she saw that many of the children and some adults suffer from night
blindness. Which of the following foods should she recommend be
incorporated into the Indonesian diet to help prevent future generations
from developing this condition?
A) Sweet potato
B) Orange juice
C) Peanut butter
D) Powdered skim milk
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
15.
The animal version of vitamin D is known as
A) ergocalciferol.
B) foliocalciferol.
C) cholecalciferol.
D) phyllocalciferol.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
16.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K?
A) A deficiency increases the risk for hemophilia
B) A deficiency leads to keratinization of the cornea
C) Bacteria in the intestines synthesize bioavailable vitamin K
D) There are multiple forms in the diet of which menadione is the
naturally occurring form
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
17.
In what chief capacity does vitamin K function?
A) Blood clotting
B) Energy metabolism
C) Calcium utilization
D) Epithelial tissue renewal
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
18.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who
regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice?
A) Bone pain
B) Dermatitis
C) Skin yellowing
D) Vitamin A toxicity
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
19.
How many different forms of vitamin A are active in the body?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
20.
Which of the following can the body use to synthesize vitamin D?
A) Bone
B) Carotene
C) Tryptophan
D) Exposure to sunlight
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
21.
Which of the following is responsible for transporting vitamin A from the
liver to other tissues?
A) Albumin
B) Rhodopsin
C) Retinol-binding protein
D) Transcarotenoid protein
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
22.
What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D?
A) Promotes secretion of calcitonin
B) Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol
C) Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-
soluble vitamins
D) Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium
mobilization from bone
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
23.
Which of the following is the name of the vitamin A compound that is
active in the visual response?
A) Opsin
B) Keratin
C) Retinal
D) Carotene
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
24.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin A in foods?
A) Anthocyanin in beets masks the presence of beta-carotene
B) Margarine made from corn oil is a poor source of vitamin A
C) Most carotenoids can be converted in the body to active vitamin A
D) Chlorophyll in dark green leafy vegetables masks the presence of beta-
carotene
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
25.
Which of the following are major sources of vitamin E in the diet?
A) Meats
B) Citrus fruits
C) Vegetable oils
D) Milk and dairy products
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
26.
What is the function of renin?
A) Activates angiotensin
B) Activates antidiuretic hormone
C) Stimulates the thirst mechanism
D) Stimulates water absorption from the GI tract
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
27.
Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements?
A) Can cause toxicity
B) Should always be taken with diuretics
C) Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure
D) Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
28.
What minimum percentage of body weight loss as water results in fatigue,
weakness, and loss of appetite?
A) 1-2
B) 3-4
C) 5-6
D) 7-8
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
29.
Tiffany is a strict vegan and does not consume calcium-rich plant foods
nor supplements of calcium. Which of the following is most responsible for
maintaining her blood calcium levels in the normal range?
A) Calcitonin
B) Calmodulin
C) Hydroxyapatite
D) Parathyroid hormone
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
30.
Which of the following events is specific to a salt-sensitive individual?
A) Blood pressure increases as salt intake rises
B) Immune system is activated when salt intake increases
C) Muscle cramps occur when body sodium becomes depleted
D) Thirst response is activated upon consumption of a sodium-rich food
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
31.
What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more
concentrated?
A) Buffer action
B) Osmotic pressure
C) Permeable selectivity
D) Electrolyte imbalance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
32.
Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition?
A) Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
B) Water losses from the body are highest through the feces
C) Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer
D) Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
33.
Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?
A) 34
B) 65
C) 80
D) 105
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
34.
What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body?
A) Activates andiotensin
B) Activates angiotensinogen
C) Helps with gastric digestion
D) Helps maintain acid-base balance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
35.
How many mg of calcium are present in a 500-mg tablet of calcium
carbonate?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 350
D) 500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
36.
Which of the following is not a feature of body weight and bone health?
A) Weight loss adversely affects bone density
B) Negative energy balance typically reduces calcium absorption
C) A low-calcium diet promotes similar bone loss in normal and overweight
people
D) People with BMIs over 30 have denser bones than their counterparts with
BMIs around 25
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
37.
What is the minimum amount of water (mL) that must be excreted each day as
urine in order to carry away the body's waste products?
A) 100
B) 250
C) 500
D) 1,000
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
38.
When calculating the amount of iron that can be absorbed from a meal, all
of the following factors are of major importance except
A) EDTA content.
B) phytate content.
C) vitamin C content.
D) MFP factor content.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
39.
A measure of the amount at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the
body is termed
A) net utilization.
B) bioavailability.
C) biological value.
D) utilization efficiency.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
40.
What is the response of the thyroid gland to an iodine deficiency?
A) Increase in its size to trap more iodine
B) Increase in its size to trap more thyroxine
C) Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) Decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
41.
What percent of the U.S. population is not exposed to a fluoridated public
water supply?
A) 10
B) 30
C) 50
D) 90
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
42.
Which of the following is descriptive of iron deficiency and behavior?
A) The practice of pica may enhance iron absorption
B) Changes in behavior precede the appearance of anemia
C) The practice of pica may delay the onset of iron-induced behavioral
changes
D) Adults are more resistant to iron-induced behavioral changes than
children
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
43.
Approximately how many people worldwide are thought to be affected by
iron-deficiency anemia?
A) 1 million
B) 100 million
C) 1.6 billion
D) 3.5 billion
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
44.
One of the thyroid gland hormones is called
A) thyroxine.
B) goitrogen.
C) thiostimulating hormone.
D) tissue stimulating hormone.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
45.
An enzyme in which zinc or copper is an integral part of its structure is
classified as a(n)
A) metalloenzyme.
B) oxidoreductase.
C) cytochromidase.
D) metallothionase.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
46.
Which of the following represents the order of the stages of iron
deficiency?
A) Iron stores decline - iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis
falls
B) Hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron transport diminishes - iron stores
decline
C) Iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron stores
decline
D) Iron transport diminishes - iron stores decline - hemoglobin synthesis
falls
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
47.
What type of anemia results from iron deficiency?
A) Hemolytic
B) Megaloblastic
C) Microcytic hypochromic
D) Macrocytic hyperchromic
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
48.
Which of the following represents the most reliable dietary source of
zinc?
A) Nuts and oils
B) Milk and yogurt
C) Fruits and vegetables
D) Meats and whole-grain cereals
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
49.
If a person's body has a total of 5 grams of iron, how many grams would be
found in the hemoglobin?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
50.
Deficiency of which of the following minerals is associated with retarded
growth and sexual development in children?
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Iodine
D) Chromium
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
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