Submitted by on 12/9/2011 8:50:20 AM
Points Awarded 8.00
Points Missed 42.00
Percentage 16.0%
Incorrect
1.
Direct contributors to the metabolic syndrome include all of the following except
A) obesity.
B) hypertension.
C) insulin resistance.
D) high sodium intake.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
2.
What should be the next course of action for a person who was unsuccessful in lowering LDL or blood pressure by lifestyle changes?
A) Prescribe medications
B) Consider coronary bypass surgery
C) Obtain regular nutrition counseling
D) Consider gastric surgery to reduce body weight
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
3.
A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is termed
A) angina.
B) a stroke.
C) a vascular event.
D) metabolic syndrome.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
4.
Which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease?
A) Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases
B) Diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases
C) Dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood
D) Dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
5.
Which of the following is not among the common, long-term consequences of diabetes?
A) Blindness
B) Kidney failure
C) Decrease in infections
D) Increase in heart attacks
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
6.
Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens?
A) Broiling
B) Roasting
C) Marinating before cooking
D) Wrapping the food in foil when cooking
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
7.
The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(an)
A) aorta.
B) plaque.
C) aneurysm.
D) diverticula.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
8.
Most people with type 2 diabetes have
A) sarcopenia.
B) osteoporosis.
C) excess body fat.
D) insulin dependency.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
9.
Which of the following is not a feature of dietary fat and cancer?
A) Type of fat may influence cancer initiation
B) Type of fat may influence cancer promotion
C) Intake of omega-3 fatty acids from fish may protect against some cancers
D) Recent studies have weakened the associated risk of high-fat diets with cancer
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
10.
All of the following are characteristics of diabetes mellitus except
A) type 1 diabetes can occur at any age.
B) type 2 diabetes develops primarily when people reach adulthood.
C) the two major forms are variations of the insulin-dependent type.
D) the most common form is characterized by resistance to insulin by body cells.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
11.
Risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioral change include all of the following except
A) stress.
B) smoking.
C) heredity.
D) hypertension.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
12.
Chelation therapy is purported to work by ridding the body of
A) tumor cells.
B) toxic metals.
C) organic toxins.
D) excess fat-soluble vitamins.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
13.
Which of the following may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease?
A) BMI of 26
B) Low LDL-cholesterol levels
C) High HDL-cholesterol levels
D) High C-reactive protein levels
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
14.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
15.
What term describes an abnormal cell mass that is not cancer?
A) Benign tumor
B) Promoting tumor
C) Malignant tumor
D) Premalignant tumor
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
16.
Approximately what percent of people with high blood pressure are sensitive to salt?
A) 15
B) 35
C) 50
D) 90
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
17.
Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the U.S. food supply?
A) Virtually all fish contain mercury
B) Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna
C) Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population group
D) Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
18.
Which of the following is the most common use for adding carotenoids to foods?
A) To color the food
B) To extend shelflife
C) To inhibit microbial growth
D) To inhibit nitrosamine formation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
19.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism?
A) A chief symptom is diarrhea
B) A full recovery may take years
C) It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus
D) It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
20.
If you suspect that you are suffering from a foodborne illness, appropriate actions to take include all of the following except
A) refrain from eating or drinking any more of the tainted product.
B) drink clear liquids to help combat diarrhea and vomiting, and call a physician.
C) find a portion of the remaining suspected food and ask someone else to taste it to detect any off flavors.
D) find the remainder of the suspected food and store it in the refrigerator for possible inspection by health authorities.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
21.
Which of the following dictates that an additive must not have been found to be a carcinogen in any test on animals or human beings?
A) Additive Rules
B) Delaney Clause
C) FDA GRAS List
D) Contaminant Law
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
22.
If the lowest level of a food additive that causes a harmful effect is 100 micrograms, what amount would be allowed by the FDA's margin of safety?
A) 1 microgram
B) 50 micrograms
C) 100 micrograms
D) 1 milligram
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
23.
Minerals most associated with unpleasant characteristics of potable water include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) calcium.
C) manganese.
D) phosphorus.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
24.
What is the name of the program that reports on the dietary intakes of pesticides from our food supply?
A) Total Diet Study
B) Toxicant Monitoring Program
C) Food Safety and Health Program
D) Diet and Market Analysis Report
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
25.
All of the following are among the characteristics of antimicrobial food additives except
A) nitrates also preserve the color of hot dogs.
B) ordinary baking powder is one of the most common.
C) sodium propionate is used in cheeses and margarine.
D) nitrites can be converted to cancer-causing substances in the stomach.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
26.
What is the most common source of bottled water?
A) Glacier run-off
B) Springs and wells
C) Rivers in the wilderness
D) Municipal water supplies
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
27.
Which of the following is a feature of bottled waters that are sold to consumers?
A) Bottled water is classified as a food and is regulated by the FDA
B) Cost and stability are the two main reasons for choosing to use bottled water
C) Bottled water is classified as an indirect additive to the diet and is regulated by the EPA
D) Government regulations mandate that labels on bottled water reveal sources and heavy metal content
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
28.
What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food?
A) 5-10 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) mc031-1.jpg-1 minute
D) 3 minutes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
29.
A patient reports that since returning from overseas travel to a developing country, she has been experiencing stomach cramps and diarrhea. Which of the following foodborne organisms is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A) E. coli
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Listeria monocytogenes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
30.
Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging?
A) PBBs
B) URPs
C) Dioxins
D) BHT and BHA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
31.
The extent to which an environmental contaminant becomes harmful is dependent primarily on its
A) persistence.
B) solanine content.
C) soil absorption efficiency.
D) water solubility characteristics.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
32.
What defines the FDA's de minimis rule?
A) A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods
B) The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected
C) The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame
D) The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of cancer to human beings
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
33.
All of the following are characteristics of oysters in the diet except
A) they are the primary factor in traveler's diarrhea.
B) eating them raw is a risk factor for some bacterial infections.
C) some oyster-borne microbes are destroyed when the consumer drinks alcohol.
D) many oyster-borne bacteria, but not viruses, are destroyed by some hot sauces.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
34.
What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A) WIC
B) EAT
C) National Food Resource Program
D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
35.
Which of the following is a feature of U.S. agriculture practices?
A) They promote protection of soil and water
B) They frequently lead to higher crop prices
C) They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms
D) They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
36.
What is the international poverty line per day for a single person?
A) $1.08
B) $3.75
C) $5.15
D) $10.00
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
37.
All of the following are features of herbicide use except
A) it pollutes the water and air.
B) it often injures more than just weeds.
C) it usually is safe for farmers to practice.
D) it encourages evolution of herbicide-resistant weeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
38.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
39.
What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP?
A) $10
B) $35
C) $100
D) $145
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
40.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
41.
In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to correct the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working?
A) Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated
B) Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished
C) Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children
D) Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
42.
What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth?
A) The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth's cultivable land
B) The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time
C) The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants
D) The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth's water mass
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
43.
Approximately what percentage of the U.S. food supply outside of the home is wasted?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
44.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
45.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of poverty and hunger?
A) Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household
B) The highest rates of obesity occur among the poorest
C) The provision of food to the poor actually helps to prevent obesity
D) The poor prefer to purchase energy-dense foods despite their higher cost compared with vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
46.
What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
A) Feeding America
B) Goodwill Food Assistance
C) Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
D) Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
47.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
48.
What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A) Oral rehydration therapy
B) Ozone purified waste water
C) Protein-energy repletion formula
D) Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
49.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
50.
The nutrients most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) iodine.
C) protein.
D) vitamin A.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
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Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 8:53:32 AM
Points Awarded 12.00
Points Missed 38.00
Percentage 24.0%
Incorrect
1.
Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to
A) 1 drink for both women and men.
B) 1 drink for women and 2 for men.
C) 2 drinks for both women and men.
D) 2 drinks for women and 4 for men.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
2.
The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(an)
A) aorta.
B) plaque.
C) aneurysm.
D) diverticula.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
3.
Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes?
A) It is an autoimmune disorder
B) It occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age
C) It must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills
D) It accounts for approximately 50% of all cases of diabetes
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
4.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
5.
Functions of the T-cells include all of the following except
A) recognition of antigens.
B) production of antibodies.
C) release of killer chemicals.
D) suppression of the immune response when appropriate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
6.
The sixth leading cause of death in the United States is
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) hypertension.
D) coronary heart disease.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
7.
The diseases most common today include all of the following except
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) tuberculosis.
D) heart disease.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
8.
What is ayurveda?
A) A system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis
B) An oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth
C) A Hindu system for enhancing the body's ability to prevent illness and to heal itself
D) A variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
9.
Beverly is a 48-year-old woman with a strong family history of atherosclerosis. She eats a diet high in fat, smokes, and doesn't exercise much because she typically works 12-hour days. Beverly visits her doctor because she has recently been having chest pains. Her doctor suspects she is at risk for a heart attack. Which of the following would be the most definitive predictor of this suspicion?
A) Platelet count
B) C-reactive protein concentrations
C) LDL cholesterol serum concentrations
D) HDL cholesterol serum concentrations
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
10.
Approximately how many million people in the United States are believed to have hypertension?
A) 10
B) 30
C) 65
D) 100
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
11.
Insulin resistance is defined as
A) reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin.
B) impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas.
C) increased destruction of insulin-producing cells.
D) refusal of people with type 1 diabetes to self-inject insulin.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
12.
Risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioral change include all of the following except
A) stress.
B) smoking.
C) heredity.
D) hypertension.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
13.
In the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is
A) hypoglycemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) temporary kidney shutdown.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
14.
What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis?
A) HDL
B) LDL
C) HDK
D) VLDK
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
15.
Which of the following is not known to correlate strongly with risk for cancer of the head and neck?
A) Tobacco use
B) Alcohol intake
C) Food additives and pesticides
D) Low intake of vegetables and fruits
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
16.
What is the primary reason for increased urine output in uncontrolled diabetes?
A) Insufficient levels of circulating insulin permit the kidneys to lose excess water
B) High levels of blood glucose spill into the urine, drawing water with it by osmosis
C) Excess circulating insulin affects the output of antidiuretic hormone which allows greater losses of water
D) Large amounts of body fat and glycogen are broken down, resulting in increased release of cellular water
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
17.
Genetic engineering of broccoli to increase the selenium content has inadvertently lowered the content of
A) fiber, an indigestible carbohydrate.
B) vitamin C, a water-soluble antioxidant.
C) sulforaphane, an anticancer phytochemical.
D) chlorophyll, a magnesium-containing substance.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
18.
What is the leading cause of food contamination in the United States?
A) Naturally occurring toxicants
B) Food poisoning from microbes
C) Pesticide residues from farmers
D) Food additives from the food industry
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
19.
Which of the following is an example of a food preservation technique?
A) Irradiation used to sterilize spices
B) Carotenoids used to retard formation of nitrosamines
C) Sulfites used to retard growth of pathogenic organisms
D) Nitrites used to form unique radiolytic particles when the food is overheated
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
20.
Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with
A) nitrosamines.
B) rotting vegetables.
C) undercooked poultry.
D) improperly canned vegetables.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
21.
What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers?
A) 140
B) 152
C) 165
D) 180
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
22.
The most common symptoms of foodborne infection include all of the following except
A) fever.
B) cramps.
C) diarrhea.
D) double vision.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
23.
Of the following, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent?
A) Sugar
B) Saccharin
C) Sodium nitrite
D) Sodium propionate
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
24.
What country accounts for most of the reported cases of mad cow disease?
A) China
B) Hong Kong
C) United States
D) United Kingdom
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
25.
The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of
A) sulfite.
B) sodium.
C) acrylamide.
D) bicarbonate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
26.
What is the average yearly intake (gallons) per person of bottled water in the United States?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 25
D) 45
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
27.
What term is used to describe the highest level of a pesticide that is allowed in a food when the pesticide is used according to label directions?
A) Toxicity level
B) Tolerance level
C) Risk concentration
D) Optimum concentration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
28.
Why is ground meat more susceptible to microbial contamination than unground meat?
A) It has more surface area
B) It is usually undercooked
C) It has a higher fat content
D) It is not inspected as often
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
29.
Which of the following is a feature of the substance BHT?
A) It is a food antimicrobial
B) It is a common food colorant
C) It contributes significantly to the total additive intake from the diet
D) It decreases cancer formation when given in large amounts to animals exposed to carcinogens
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
30.
A feature of sulfite food additives is that they
A) are frequently used in wines.
B) inhibit growth of most microbes.
C) interact with folate to inhibit its absorption.
D) are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
31.
Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially-grown lima beans due to the seed's content of
A) cyanide.
B) solanine.
C) goitrogens.
D) hallucinogens.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food?
A) 5-10 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) mc031-1.jpg-1 minute
D) 3 minutes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
33.
Which of the following is the most common pathogenic microorganism in U.S. foods?
A) Salmonella
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium perfringens
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
34.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
35.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
36.
What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP?
A) $10
B) $35
C) $100
D) $145
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
37.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
38.
What is aquaculture?
A) A seaweed growth system
B) The practice of fish farming
C) A water purification system
D) The raising of plants in a water environment
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
39.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
40.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
41.
As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor's office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, "...and thus, hunger worsens poverty...." The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty?
A) Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care
B) No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty
C) Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households
D) Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
42.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
43.
Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa does not often eat three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself. Melissa is experiencing which of the following?
A) Food insufficiency
B) Food mismanagement
C) Non-sustainable lifestyle
D) Misallocation of resources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
44.
Which of the following is not one of the three major factors affecting world population growth?
A) Birth rates
B) Death rates
C) Standard of living
D) Scientific knowledge
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
45.
How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people?
A) About the same
B) One-half as much
C) 5 times as much
D) 10 times as much
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
46.
Which of the following is not a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy?
A) Rice
B) Corn
C) Wheat
D) Sorghum
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
47.
What fraction of children worldwide are born underweight?
A) 1/10
B) 1/6
C) 1/3
D) 1/2
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
48.
If the world's production of food energy were equally distributed among the world's population, approximately how many kcalories per day would be available to each person?
A) 650
B) 1000
C) 1450
D) 2720
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
49.
What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A) WIC
B) EAT
C) National Food Resource Program
D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
In the practice of agriculture, approximately what percentage more energy is required to produce most animal foods in comparison to grains?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 450
D) 1000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 8:56:18 AM
Points Awarded 6.00
Points Missed 44.00
Percentage 12.0%
Incorrect
1.
Which of the following is not one of the factors that would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome?
A) Diuretic use
B) Insulin resistance
C) Abdominal obesity
D) High blood triglycerides
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
2.
Diuretics act to lower blood pressure by
A) increasing fluid loss.
B) decreasing potassium loss.
C) reducing arterial plaque formation.
D) increasing retention of calcium and potassium.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
3.
A substance that causes cancer is termed a(n)
A) carcinogen.
B) antipromoter.
C) DNA-modifier.
D) RNA-modifier.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
4.
Among the following ethnic populations, which show the lowest prevalence of Type 2 diabetes?
A) Caucasians
B) Native Americans
C) African Americans
D) Hispanic Americans
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
5.
Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes?
A) It is an autoimmune disorder
B) It occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age
C) It must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills
D) It accounts for approximately 50% of all cases of diabetes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
6.
Which of the following is not among the recommendations by health professionals to treat hypertension?
A) Increase fiber intake
B) Eat foods high in potassium
C) If overweight, reduce weight
D) Decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
7.
The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) synergisms.
D) immunoglobulins.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
8.
Which of the following is not known to correlate strongly with risk for cancer of the head and neck?
A) Tobacco use
B) Alcohol intake
C) Food additives and pesticides
D) Low intake of vegetables and fruits
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
9.
Kimmy is a curious 4-month-old baby who is just learning how to crawl. On Monday she came across some large dust particles underneath the couch, which caused her to sneeze and develop a runny nose and a cough. Two weeks later she came across more dust from the same place. Which of the following aspects of immunity allows Kimmy's body to remember how to respond to this dust again?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Beta cells
D) Spleen cells
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
10.
Which of the following is a feature of the DASH diet?
A) It works synergistically with reduction of sodium intake
B) It was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis
C) It is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin B12
D) It includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
11.
The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as
A) polyuria.
B) polyphagia.
C) polyuresis.
D) pseudodiuresis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
12.
What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1?
A) 5-10
B) 10-20
C) 20-35
D) 45-55
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
13.
A cancer that originates from bone is a(n)
A) sarcoma.
B) carcinoma.
C) osteocarcinoma.
D) hematopoietic neoplasm.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
14.
What term describes an abnormal cell mass that is not cancer?
A) Benign tumor
B) Promoting tumor
C) Malignant tumor
D) Premalignant tumor
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
15.
The diseases most common today include all of the following except
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) tuberculosis.
D) heart disease.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
16.
People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of
A) sodium.
B) calcium.
C) potassium.
D) phosphate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
17.
What organization is responsible for setting tolerance guidelines for the use of a pesticide on food?
A) EPA
B) FDA
C) WHO
D) DDT
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
18.
Which of the following is a food contaminant formed during chlorine treatment of wood used in the manufacture of paper?
A) Dioxin
B) Alginate
C) Acrylamide
D) Hydrochloride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
19.
What sweetener should be avoided by people with PKU?
A) Neotame
B) Sucralose
C) Aspartame
D) Acesulfame-K
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
20.
What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened packages of lunch meats, and tuna salad?
A) 1-2 days
B) 3-5 days
C) 1 week
D) 2-4 weeks
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
21.
What branch of the Department of Health and Human Services is responsible for monitoring foodborne illness?
A) EPA
B) FAO
C) CDC
D) WHO
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
22.
Among the following organisms, which is primarily responsible for causing "traveler's" diarrhea?
A) Vibrio
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium botulinum
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
23.
Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States?
A) It decreases udder infections in cows
B) None can be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it
C) If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract
D) If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth hormone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
24.
Which of the following is a feature of an organic halogen?
A) Heavy metal
B) Safe additive
C) Toxic chemical
D) Component of most proteins
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
25.
A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomach ache, fever, and vomiting. Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. The most likely organism causing these symptoms is
A) E. coli.
B) Salmonella.
C) Perfringens.
D) Campylobacter jejuni.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
26.
What government agency is charged with protecting agriculture and the food supply?
A) The Food Safety and Security Agency
B) The Agricultural and Biosecurity Agency
C) The Antiterrorism Subcommittee on Food Security
D) The FDA subcommittee on Food Safety and Hazards Agency
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
27.
Caffeine is permitted as a food additive because it is part of the
A) GRAS list.
B) Delaney Clause.
C) WHO Mandate of 1985.
D) USDA Bulletin of 1962.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
28.
What was the toxic substance that accidentally found its way into the food chain in the early 1970s and to which almost all of Michigan's residents became exposed?
A) Lead acetate
B) Methylmercury
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Polybrominated biphenyl
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
29.
Which of the following is an example of heavy metal exposure from foods?
A) Cooking foods for prolonged periods in iron skillets
B) Ingestion of food containing high amounts of mercury
C) Ingestion of food supplements containing high levels of calcium and sodium salts
D) Cooking foods over superheated charcoal containing high levels of copper and iron
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
30.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism illness?
A) It is rarely fatal and victims usually recover completely
B) It is caused by a toxic compound rather than by invasion of pathogenic bacteria
C) It is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with a combination of aflatoxin and mold
D) It most often occurs from eating foods that were stored under aerobic conditions of high pH
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
31.
What has been the change in the current amount of imported foods compared with 10 years ago?
A) About the same
B) Reduced by about 20%
C) Reduced by about 50%
D) Increased by about 2-fold
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
32.
Which of the following is an example of a food preservation technique?
A) Irradiation used to sterilize spices
B) Carotenoids used to retard formation of nitrosamines
C) Sulfites used to retard growth of pathogenic organisms
D) Nitrites used to form unique radiolytic particles when the food is overheated
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
33.
The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed
A) bioaccumulation.
B) hyperconcentration.
C) evolutionary containment.
D) functional high level accumulation.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
34.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
35.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
36.
What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth?
A) The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth's cultivable land
B) The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time
C) The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants
D) The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth's water mass
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
37.
Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
A) Poverty
B) High cost of food
C) Excessive food waste
D) Lack of nutrition education
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
38.
About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 100 kcalories of grains?
A) 1
B) 33
C) 50
D) 75
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
39.
Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa does not often eat three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself. Melissa is experiencing which of the following?
A) Food insufficiency
B) Food mismanagement
C) Non-sustainable lifestyle
D) Misallocation of resources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
40.
Which of the following is a feature of U.S. agriculture practices?
A) They promote protection of soil and water
B) They frequently lead to higher crop prices
C) They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms
D) They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
41.
What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
A) Feeding America
B) Goodwill Food Assistance
C) Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
D) Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
42.
What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A) Oral rehydration therapy
B) Ozone purified waste water
C) Protein-energy repletion formula
D) Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
43.
All of the following are features of herbicide use except
A) it pollutes the water and air.
B) it often injures more than just weeds.
C) it usually is safe for farmers to practice.
D) it encourages evolution of herbicide-resistant weeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
44.
What is the international poverty line per day for a single person?
A) $1.08
B) $3.75
C) $5.15
D) $10.00
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
45.
All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) solar.
D) natural gas.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
46.
A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A) a plague.
B) a famine.
C) food poverty.
D) food insecurity.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
47.
Approximately what number of children worldwide die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes?
A) 50,000
B) 500,000
C) 1.2 million
D) 5.6 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
48.
Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
A) insecurity.
B) insufficiency.
C) vulnerability.
D) precariousness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
49.
As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor's office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, "...and thus, hunger worsens poverty...." The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty?
A) Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care
B) No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty
C) Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households
D) Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
All of the following are major factors affecting population growth except
A) birth rates.
B) death rates.
C) ozone depletion.
D) standards of living.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 8:58:33 AM
Points Awarded 10.00
Points Missed 40.00
Percentage 20.0%
Incorrect
1.
Diuretics act to lower blood pressure by
A) increasing fluid loss.
B) decreasing potassium loss.
C) reducing arterial plaque formation.
D) increasing retention of calcium and potassium.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
2.
Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by the resistance of
A) the ventricles in the atria.
B) blood flow in the arterioles.
C) the carotid arterial flow in the brain.
D) blood flow in the portal venous system.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
3.
Which of the following is not a feature of dietary fat and cancer?
A) Type of fat may influence cancer initiation
B) Type of fat may influence cancer promotion
C) Intake of omega-3 fatty acids from fish may protect against some cancers
D) Recent studies have weakened the associated risk of high-fat diets with cancer
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
4.
People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of
A) sodium.
B) calcium.
C) potassium.
D) phosphate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
5.
What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1?
A) 5-10
B) 10-20
C) 20-35
D) 45-55
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
6.
All of the following are among the symptoms of diabetes except
A) polyuria.
B) polydipsia.
C) polyphagia.
D) polysaccharidosis.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
7.
The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(an)
A) aorta.
B) plaque.
C) aneurysm.
D) diverticula.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
8.
Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in least formation of carcinogens?
A) Frying
B) Grilling
C) Broiling
D) Marinating before cooking
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
9.
Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to
A) 1 drink for both women and men.
B) 1 drink for women and 2 for men.
C) 2 drinks for both women and men.
D) 2 drinks for women and 4 for men.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
10.
In a person with a BMI of 50, what minimum number of pounds must be lost to obtain a measurable improvement in glucose, blood lipids, and blood pressure?
A) 10-20
B) 40-50
C) 75-100
D) More than 100
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
11.
Which of the following is not among the recommendations issued by health professionals to reduce cancer risks?
A) Limit intake of red meats
B) Moderate, if any, intake of alcohol
C) Increase intake of foods high in iron
D) Eat at least 5 servings a day of vegetables and fruits
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
12.
Diabetes is known to increase the risk for all of the following except
A) stroke.
B) cancer.
C) blindness.
D) kidney failure.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
13.
Anyone who is medically advised to lower blood cholesterol should
A) eat fish oil capsules.
B) take lecithin supplements.
C) achieve desirable body weight.
D) lower his/her intake of insoluble fiber.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
14.
A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to
A) sugar alcohols.
B) glycated fructose.
C) long-chain ketones.
D) glycated corneal membranes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
15.
Risk factors that predict the development of hypertension include all of the following except
A) age.
B) race.
C) salt intake.
D) family background.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
16.
All of the following are associations between smoking and coronary heart disease except
A) smoking damages platelets.
B) smoking increases blood pressure.
C) smoking as a risk factor for CHD is the same for women and men.
D) cessation of smoking begins to lower the risk of CHD after 36 months.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
17.
All of the following are among the characteristics of antimicrobial food additives except
A) nitrates also preserve the color of hot dogs.
B) ordinary baking powder is one of the most common.
C) sodium propionate is used in cheeses and margarine.
D) nitrites can be converted to cancer-causing substances in the stomach.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
18.
In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents?
A) Brain
B) Muscle
C) Intestines
D) Central nervous system
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
19.
A feature of sulfite food additives is that they
A) are frequently used in wines.
B) inhibit growth of most microbes.
C) interact with folate to inhibit its absorption.
D) are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
20.
The FDA considers the amount of pesticide intake to be acceptable if the daily intake ingested over a lifetime appears to be
A) without appreciable risk.
B) 100% risk-free for everyone.
C) safe for about 98% of the population.
D) 100% risk-free for infants and children.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
21.
Which of the following are examples of heavy metals?
A) Mercury and lead
B) Iron and chromium
C) Carbon and nitrogen
D) Molybdenum and fluoride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
22.
What list is composed of substances widely used for many years without apparent ill effects?
A) FDA
B) GRAS
C) Delaney
D) Additive Safety
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
23.
Approximately what percentage of U.S. beverage choices consists of bottled water?
A) 2
B) 11
C) 33
D) 55
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
24.
Which of the following is a feature affecting the public water supply?
A) Surface water is derived primarily from underground aquifers
B) Contaminants break down more slowly in groundwater than in surface water
C) Groundwater sources are most susceptible to contamination by runoff of pesticides and wastes from highways
D) Contaminants such as gasoline from leaking underground storage tanks are likely to primarily affect the quality of surface water
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
25.
What level of cancer risk to human beings from a food additive is accepted by the FDA?
A) 0
B) 1 in 1,000
C) 1 in 1,000,000
D) 1 in 100,000,000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
26.
Which of the following is a flavor-enhancing food additive?
A) BHT
B) Beta-carotene
C) Sodium propionate
D) Monosodium glutamate
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
27.
Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging?
A) PBBs
B) URPs
C) Dioxins
D) BHT and BHA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
28.
Which of the following properties are shared by vitamins C and E, BHA and BHT, and sulfites?
A) Flavor enhancers
B) Antimicrobial agents
C) Antioxidant activities
D) Incidental food additives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
29.
Which of the following is the most common use for adding carotenoids to foods?
A) To color the food
B) To extend shelflife
C) To inhibit microbial growth
D) To inhibit nitrosamine formation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
30.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism?
A) A chief symptom is diarrhea
B) A full recovery may take years
C) It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus
D) It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
31.
Caffeine is permitted as a food additive because it is part of the
A) GRAS list.
B) Delaney Clause.
C) WHO Mandate of 1985.
D) USDA Bulletin of 1962.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
What is the name of the rule that modifies the original meaning of the Delaney Clause?
A) GRAS list
B) Bonnie Clause
C) De minimis rule
D) No-risk standard
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
33.
Which of the following is the most appropriate method to thaw turkey?
A) In the refrigerator
B) At room temperature
C) On top of a warm oven
D) Under very low heat in the oven
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
34.
All of the following are features of herbicide use except
A) it pollutes the water and air.
B) it often injures more than just weeds.
C) it usually is safe for farmers to practice.
D) it encourages evolution of herbicide-resistant weeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
35.
Approximately what number of children worldwide die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes?
A) 50,000
B) 500,000
C) 1.2 million
D) 5.6 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
36.
What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A) Oral rehydration therapy
B) Ozone purified waste water
C) Protein-energy repletion formula
D) Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
37.
Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
A) Poverty
B) High cost of food
C) Excessive food waste
D) Lack of nutrition education
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
38.
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
A) FAP
B) WIC
C) EAT
D) MOW
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
39.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
40.
Which of the following is not one of the three major factors affecting world population growth?
A) Birth rates
B) Death rates
C) Standard of living
D) Scientific knowledge
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
41.
A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A) a plague.
B) a famine.
C) food poverty.
D) food insecurity.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
42.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
43.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
44.
What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A) Integrated production
B) Progressive agriculture
C) Sustainable agriculture
D) Resource management production
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
45.
SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase all of the following except
A) soap.
B) seeds.
C) cereal.
D) cola beverages.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
46.
What is aquaculture?
A) A seaweed growth system
B) The practice of fish farming
C) A water purification system
D) The raising of plants in a water environment
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
47.
Which of the following is not a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy?
A) Rice
B) Corn
C) Wheat
D) Sorghum
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
48.
The nutrients most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) iodine.
C) protein.
D) vitamin A.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
49.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth?
A) The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth's cultivable land
B) The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time
C) The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants
D) The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth's water mass
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Close
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Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:02:51 AM
Points Awarded 12.00
Points Missed 38.00
Percentage 24.0%
Correct
1.
The DASH diet was developed to lower the risk for
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) hypertension.
D) metabolic syndrome.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
2.
What treatment is effective against lead poisoning and is also considered an alternative therapy for cardiovascular disease?
A) Ozone injections
B) Chelation therapy
C) Biofield therapeutics
D) Hydroexpulsion therapeutics
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
3.
Which of the following is not a feature of dietary fat and cancer?
A) Type of fat may influence cancer initiation
B) Type of fat may influence cancer promotion
C) Intake of omega-3 fatty acids from fish may protect against some cancers
D) Recent studies have weakened the associated risk of high-fat diets with cancer
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
4.
Which of the following is not considered a diet-related risk factor for coronary heart disease?
A) Obesity
B) High sugar intake
C) Glucose intolerance
D) High blood cholesterol
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
5.
Which of the following is a characteristic of HIV or AIDS?
A) HIV but not AIDS is curable
B) AIDS develops from HIV infection
C) Optimal nutrition can prevent but not cure HIV
D) Since the 1990s, the death rate from HIV and AIDS has increased markedly
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
6.
The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as
A) polyuria.
B) polyphagia.
C) polyuresis.
D) pseudodiuresis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
7.
The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) synergisms.
D) immunoglobulins.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
8.
Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States does not bear a relationship to diet?
A) Cancer
B) Heart disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Pneumonia and influenza
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
9.
Risk factors that predict the development of hypertension include all of the following except
A) age.
B) race.
C) salt intake.
D) family background.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
10.
All of the following are features of herbs sold to the public except
A) they are not regulated as drugs by the FDA.
B) they are not evaluated for safety or effectiveness by the FDA.
C) the FDA, and not the manufacturer of the herb, has the burden of proving the product is unsafe.
D) they are considered appropriate for treatment of certain major health disorders such as cancer or AIDS.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
11.
What is the appropriate method of assessing blood lipids to ensure reliable results?
A) Take at least 2 measurements at least 1 week apart
B) Send the patient to 2 different laboratories and average the results
C) Take a fasting and a non-fasting blood sample and average the results
D) Perform a fat tolerance test by having the patient drink a beverage containing 25 g of vegetable oil and obtain blood samples over the next 4 hours
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
12.
Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of
A) 21.
B) 30.
C) 40.
D) 55.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
13.
In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
D) Adult-onset diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
14.
For which of the following chronic diseases are dietary risk factors least involved in its development?
A) Cancer
B) Obesity
C) Diabetes
D) Atherosclerosis
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
15.
The diseases most common today include all of the following except
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) tuberculosis.
D) heart disease.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
16.
Gangrene is a common complication primarily in people with
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) pancreatitis.
D) HIV infection.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
17.
What is the chief reason that nitrites are allowed to be added to certain meat products?
A) Nitrites improve the consistency
B) The vitamin content of meat is stabilized
C) The flavor of meat is enhanced significantly
D) Nitrites inhibit the formation of botulinum toxin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
18.
Water that has the odor of "rotten eggs" is most likely contaminated with
A) sulfur.
B) dioxins.
C) Giardia.
D) Cryptosporidium.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
19.
What term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm?
A) Risk
B) Safety
C) Hazard
D) Toxicity
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
20.
The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of
A) sulfite.
B) sodium.
C) acrylamide.
D) bicarbonate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
21.
Which of the following is a flavor-enhancing food additive?
A) BHT
B) Beta-carotene
C) Sodium propionate
D) Monosodium glutamate
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
22.
What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food?
A) 5-10 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) mc031-1.jpg-1 minute
D) 3 minutes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
23.
Which of the following is a feature of food colors?
A) Caramel is an approved natural food color
B) Most food color additives are artificial colors
C) Carotenoids are used to color foods blue and green
D) Natural food colors have lower standards of purity and safety than artificial colors
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
24.
The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as
A) sanitization.
B) sterilization.
C) pasteurization.
D) depathogenation.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
25.
What list is composed of substances widely used for many years without apparent ill effects?
A) FDA
B) GRAS
C) Delaney
D) Additive Safety
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
26.
Consumption of raw oysters is known to cause hepatitis type
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
27.
Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter jejuni?
A) Raw poultry
B) Uncooked seafood
C) Imported soft cheeses
D) Undercooked beef hot dogs
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
28.
To minimize the possibility of foodborne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal temperature (°F) of at least
A) 125.
B) 140.
C) 160.
D) 195.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
29.
Which of the following dictates that an additive must not have been found to be a carcinogen in any test on animals or human beings?
A) Additive Rules
B) Delaney Clause
C) FDA GRAS List
D) Contaminant Law
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
30.
What is the largest single group of food additives?
A) Flavoring agents
B) Artificial sweeteners
C) Antimicrobial agents
D) Artificial coloring agents
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
31.
Which of the following is an example of heavy metal exposure from foods?
A) Cooking foods for prolonged periods in iron skillets
B) Ingestion of food containing high amounts of mercury
C) Ingestion of food supplements containing high levels of calcium and sodium salts
D) Cooking foods over superheated charcoal containing high levels of copper and iron
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
32.
All of the following are among the characteristics of antimicrobial food additives except
A) nitrates also preserve the color of hot dogs.
B) ordinary baking powder is one of the most common.
C) sodium propionate is used in cheeses and margarine.
D) nitrites can be converted to cancer-causing substances in the stomach.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
33.
Which of the following is a food contaminant formed during chlorine treatment of wood used in the manufacture of paper?
A) Dioxin
B) Alginate
C) Acrylamide
D) Hydrochloride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
34.
Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
A) Poverty
B) High cost of food
C) Excessive food waste
D) Lack of nutrition education
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
35.
A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A) a plague.
B) a famine.
C) food poverty.
D) food insecurity.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
36.
What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
A) Feeding America
B) Goodwill Food Assistance
C) Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
D) Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
37.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
38.
Which of the following is not a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy?
A) Rice
B) Corn
C) Wheat
D) Sorghum
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
39.
Which of the following is not one of the three major factors affecting world population growth?
A) Birth rates
B) Death rates
C) Standard of living
D) Scientific knowledge
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
40.
What is the international poverty line per day for a single person?
A) $1.08
B) $3.75
C) $5.15
D) $10.00
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
41.
Approximately what number of children worldwide die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes?
A) 50,000
B) 500,000
C) 1.2 million
D) 5.6 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
42.
What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP?
A) $10
B) $35
C) $100
D) $145
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
43.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
44.
As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor's office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, "...and thus, hunger worsens poverty...." The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty?
A) Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care
B) No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty
C) Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households
D) Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
45.
Which of the following is a feature of U.S. agriculture practices?
A) They promote protection of soil and water
B) They frequently lead to higher crop prices
C) They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms
D) They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
46.
All of the following are major factors affecting population growth except
A) birth rates.
B) death rates.
C) ozone depletion.
D) standards of living.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
47.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
48.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
49.
What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A) WIC
B) EAT
C) National Food Resource Program
D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to correct the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working?
A) Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated
B) Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished
C) Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children
D) Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
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Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:05:13 AM
Points Awarded 14.00
Points Missed 36.00
Percentage 28.0%
Correct
1.
Your aunt Crystal asks you to recommend a diet that will help lower her blood pressure. She is willing to try just about anything. Which of the following choices would be most effective in lowering Crystal's blood pressure?
A) Eliminating the use of table salt altogether
B) Including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day
C) Substituting all table salt use throughout the day with Mrs. Dash seasoning product
D) Including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day plus restricting sodium to 2 g/day
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
2.
The diseases most common today include all of the following except
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) tuberculosis.
D) heart disease.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
3.
All of the following are associations between smoking and coronary heart disease except
A) smoking damages platelets.
B) smoking increases blood pressure.
C) smoking as a risk factor for CHD is the same for women and men.
D) cessation of smoking begins to lower the risk of CHD after 36 months.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
4.
A person with diabetes is most likely to develop
A) AIDS.
B) cancer.
C) heart attacks.
D) diverticulosis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
5.
In the measurement of blood pressure, the units are expressed as
A) cm of silver.
B) cm of depth.
C) mm of plaque.
D) mm of mercury.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
6.
Approximately how many million people in the United States are believed to have hypertension?
A) 10
B) 30
C) 65
D) 100
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
7.
Approximately what percent of people with high blood pressure are sensitive to salt?
A) 15
B) 35
C) 50
D) 90
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
8.
Which of the following foods is known to contain abundant amounts of phytonutrients that protect against cancers of the esophagus and endometrium?
A) Fermented dairy foods
B) Cruciferous vegetables
C) Allium-rich vegetables
D) Lycopene-rich vegetables
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
9.
Which of the following risk factors for disease may be modified by diet?
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Heredity
D) Low HDL level
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
10.
In a person with a BMI of 50, what minimum number of pounds must be lost to obtain a measurable improvement in glucose, blood lipids, and blood pressure?
A) 10-20
B) 40-50
C) 75-100
D) More than 100
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
11.
What is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes?
A) Defect in insulin sensitivity
B) Excessive body weight gain
C) Defect of the immune system
D) Excessive intake of simple carbohydrates
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
12.
Which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease?
A) Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases
B) Diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases
C) Dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood
D) Dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
13.
Which of the following is not among the common, long-term consequences of diabetes?
A) Blindness
B) Kidney failure
C) Decrease in infections
D) Increase in heart attacks
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
14.
Which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens?
A) Milk
B) Fiber
C) Omega-3 fats
D) Refined starches
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
15.
Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens?
A) Broiling
B) Roasting
C) Marinating before cooking
D) Wrapping the food in foil when cooking
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
16.
The role of diet for people with diabetes includes all of the following except
A) sugar and sugar-containing foods need not be avoided.
B) the glycemic effect of foods should be a primary consideration.
C) diets should provide a consistent carbohydrate intake spaced throughout the day.
D) the dietary amount of carbohydrate is more important than the source of carbohydrate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
17.
Which of the following foods represents a common source of acrylamide intake in the United States?
A) Raw fruits
B) French fries
C) Raw vegetables
D) Grilled seafood
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
18.
Which of the following is a characteristic of meat contamination?
A) A USDA seal of inspection insures the absence of most harmful bacteria
B) Consumers are not able to detect the presence of harmful bacteria by odor or taste
C) The presence of naturally occurring antibodies in meats slows the growth of harmful organisms
D) Ground meat is very resistant to contamination because of the high heat released by the grinding machines
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
19.
What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease?
A) The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule
B) Safe Handling Certification Program
C) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
D) North American Residue Monitoring Program
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
20.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many people in the United States experience foodborne illness every year?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 76 million
D) 150 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
21.
Which of the following is an example of food intoxication?
A) Addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods
B) Illness produced by acute overconsumption of high-fat foods
C) Addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods
D) Illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
22.
If you suspect that you are suffering from a foodborne illness, appropriate actions to take include all of the following except
A) refrain from eating or drinking any more of the tainted product.
B) drink clear liquids to help combat diarrhea and vomiting, and call a physician.
C) find a portion of the remaining suspected food and ask someone else to taste it to detect any off flavors.
D) find the remainder of the suspected food and store it in the refrigerator for possible inspection by health authorities.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
23.
What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes?
A) Contamination
B) Irradiation malfunction
C) Soil heavy metal content
D) Improper storage conditions
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
24.
Common foods approved for irradiation include all of the following except
A) eggs.
B) milk.
C) wheat.
D) strawberries.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
25.
Which of the following is a feature of aspartame?
A) Its sweetness increases with heat
B) It is made up of three amino acids
C) It is recommended for people with PKU
D) Two of its breakdown products include methanol and formaldehyde
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
26.
You are presenting a general seminar at a food safety convention. At the end of your talk, an audience member barrages you with questions about irradiation of foods causing people to be exposed to radioactive food. How should you respond?
A) Irradiation techniques do not in any way produce radioactive foods
B) There is only cause for concern when treating foods such as milk, grapefruits, eggs, and high-fat meats
C) Radioactive foods have been approved for consumption by the American Medical Association, the FAO, and the WHO
D) Cold pasteurization is the only technique that results in radioactive foods and as long as they are avoided, there is no cause for concern
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
27.
All of the following are features of monosodium glutamate in foods except
A) it is a GRAS ingredient.
B) it is not allowed in infant foods.
C) it enhances the tastes of sweet, salty, bitter, and sour.
D) it induces adverse reactions primarily in people with diabetes.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
28.
Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods commonly eaten in large quantities by
A) children.
B) adolescents.
C) adults.
D) elderly.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
29.
What has been the change in the current amount of imported foods compared with 10 years ago?
A) About the same
B) Reduced by about 20%
C) Reduced by about 50%
D) Increased by about 2-fold
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
30.
Sugar and salt are used as antimicrobial agents in foods because they prevent microbial use of the food's
A) fat.
B) water.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
31.
Which of the following is a feature of hormones used in food production?
A) Hormone-treated cattle result in leaner meats
B) The cost of using hormones usually results in higher-priced but better quality products
C) Bovine growth hormone given to cattle does not show residues in the meat or milk
D) They are naturally occurring substances and therefore require only minimal regulation by the FDA and USDA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially-grown lima beans due to the seed's content of
A) cyanide.
B) solanine.
C) goitrogens.
D) hallucinogens.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
33.
All of the following are among antioxidant agents used by food processors except
A) BHA.
B) BHT.
C) solanine.
D) vitamin E.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
34.
Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
A) Poverty
B) High cost of food
C) Excessive food waste
D) Lack of nutrition education
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
35.
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
A) FAP
B) WIC
C) EAT
D) MOW
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
36.
In the practice of agriculture, approximately what percentage more energy is required to produce most animal foods in comparison to grains?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 450
D) 1000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
37.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
38.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
39.
As a church volunteer, you propose implementation of a food recovery program. Which of the following would not be a part of your proposal to the church board of directors?
A) Collect prepared foods from commercial kitchens
B) Salvage perishable items from wholesalers and markets
C) Gather crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest
D) Collect applications for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program to provide for any member or non-member of the church requesting assistance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
40.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
41.
All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) solar.
D) natural gas.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
42.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
43.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
44.
What is the international poverty line per day for a single person?
A) $1.08
B) $3.75
C) $5.15
D) $10.00
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
45.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
46.
Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa does not often eat three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself. Melissa is experiencing which of the following?
A) Food insufficiency
B) Food mismanagement
C) Non-sustainable lifestyle
D) Misallocation of resources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
47.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of poverty and hunger?
A) Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household
B) The highest rates of obesity occur among the poorest
C) The provision of food to the poor actually helps to prevent obesity
D) The poor prefer to purchase energy-dense foods despite their higher cost compared with vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
48.
Approximately what number of children worldwide die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes?
A) 50,000
B) 500,000
C) 1.2 million
D) 5.6 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
49.
A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A) a plague.
B) a famine.
C) food poverty.
D) food insecurity.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
50.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:07:49 AM
Points Awarded 11.00
Points Missed 39.00
Percentage 22.0%
Incorrect
1.
The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(an)
A) aorta.
B) plaque.
C) aneurysm.
D) diverticula.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
2.
What is the appropriate method of assessing blood lipids to ensure reliable results?
A) Take at least 2 measurements at least 1 week apart
B) Send the patient to 2 different laboratories and average the results
C) Take a fasting and a non-fasting blood sample and average the results
D) Perform a fat tolerance test by having the patient drink a beverage containing 25 g of vegetable oil and obtain blood samples over the next 4 hours
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
3.
A person's level of C-reactive protein appears to be a strong predictor for
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) a heart attack.
D) HIV progression.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
4.
What is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old Pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)?
A) Ephedra
B) Paclitaxal
C) Kombucha
D) Germanium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
5.
Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial plaque?
A) Size of the plaque is not as important as composition
B) Stabilization of the plaque occurs with moderate intake of alcohol
C) The amount of C-reactive protein in the plaque is a marker for high risk
D) The rough surface of plaques promotes neutrophil aggregation and antigen formation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
6.
Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 7
D) 10
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
7.
What is the primary reason for increased urine output in uncontrolled diabetes?
A) Insufficient levels of circulating insulin permit the kidneys to lose excess water
B) High levels of blood glucose spill into the urine, drawing water with it by osmosis
C) Excess circulating insulin affects the output of antidiuretic hormone which allows greater losses of water
D) Large amounts of body fat and glycogen are broken down, resulting in increased release of cellular water
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
8.
For which of the following chronic diseases are dietary risk factors least involved in its development?
A) Cancer
B) Obesity
C) Diabetes
D) Atherosclerosis
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
9.
What is the term given to mounds of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develop in the artery walls?
A) Plaques
B) Angina streaks
C) Arterial thickening
D) Pre-thromboemboli
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
10.
Which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens?
A) Milk
B) Fiber
C) Omega-3 fats
D) Refined starches
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
11.
Why should the measurement of a person's blood cholesterol be performed at least twice with measurements taken at least one week apart?
A) The person may not be fasting
B) The reliability of laboratory testing instruments for cholesterol is inexact
C) Blood cholesterol concentrations are known to vary significantly day to day
D) The person may have an infection (e.g. cold) which affects cholesterol concentration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
12.
Which of the following is a feature of the DASH diet?
A) It works synergistically with reduction of sodium intake
B) It was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis
C) It is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin B12
D) It includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
13.
Conventional medicine and alternative medical therapies are commonly linked together into a practice called
A) interactive therapy.
B) yin and yang medicine.
C) herbal-assisted healing.
D) complementary medicine.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
14.
The most important organs of the immune system include all of the following except
A) spleen.
B) muscle.
C) lymph nodes.
D) thymus gland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
15.
In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
D) Adult-onset diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
16.
What should be the next course of action for a person who was unsuccessful in lowering LDL or blood pressure by lifestyle changes?
A) Prescribe medications
B) Consider coronary bypass surgery
C) Obtain regular nutrition counseling
D) Consider gastric surgery to reduce body weight
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
17.
Which of the following is a characteristic of home water treatments?
A) Activated carbon filters are effective in removing chlorine
B) Most home filtration systems are highly efficient at removing virtually all types of contaminants
C) Boiling the water is effective at removing all organic chemicals as well as killing microorganisms
D) Most home filtration systems combine the processes of heavy metal removal, killing of microorganisms, softening of the water, and addition of enhancers
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
18.
Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods commonly eaten in large quantities by
A) children.
B) adolescents.
C) adults.
D) elderly.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
19.
All of the following are characteristics of oysters in the diet except
A) they are the primary factor in traveler's diarrhea.
B) eating them raw is a risk factor for some bacterial infections.
C) some oyster-borne microbes are destroyed when the consumer drinks alcohol.
D) many oyster-borne bacteria, but not viruses, are destroyed by some hot sauces.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
20.
You work part-time at a local diner and have noticed that there are a few questionable practices going on behind closed doors. An older employee tells you that the worst of these oversights is the workers' disregard for the "danger" zone. Which of the following applies to this employee's warning?
A) Keeping the freezer at 35° F
B) Serving raw seafood without proper cooking techniques
C) Keeping beef patties on a warm grill (135° F) for up to 3 hours
D) Not disposing of egg shells immediately after use and allowing them to sit on countertops
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
21.
What is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides?
A) FAO
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) USDA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
22.
What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened packages of lunch meats, and tuna salad?
A) 1-2 days
B) 3-5 days
C) 1 week
D) 2-4 weeks
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
23.
Sulfites are a prohibited additive for refined grain products in the United States because they
A) destroy thiamin.
B) impart off colors.
C) impart off flavors.
D) shorten the shelf-life.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
24.
What is the name of the rule that modifies the original meaning of the Delaney Clause?
A) GRAS list
B) Bonnie Clause
C) De minimis rule
D) No-risk standard
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
25.
What is the chief reason for not using irradiation for preserving dairy products?
A) It imparts off flavors
B) It coalesces the fat particles
C) It is inefficient at killing microorganisms
D) It results in high amounts of food radioactive particles
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
26.
The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of
A) sulfite.
B) sodium.
C) acrylamide.
D) bicarbonate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
27.
All of the following are rules to help prevent foodborne illness except
A) use hands to mix foods.
B) thaw meats in the refrigerator.
C) use a meat thermometer to avoid undercooking.
D) use hot, soapy water to wash hands, utensils, and countertops.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
28.
What defines the FDA's de minimis rule?
A) A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods
B) The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected
C) The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame
D) The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of cancer to human beings
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
29.
Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging?
A) PBBs
B) URPs
C) Dioxins
D) BHT and BHA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
30.
In searching for a recipe for homemade jelly, you come across a recipe by a notable food scientist, who emphasizes the importance of the correct amount of sugar in the jelly as it serves as the product's antimicrobial agent. What is the rationale behind this statement?
A) Sugar is not a sustainable food source for most microbes
B) Sugar phagocytizes the microbes that are present in the jelly
C) Sugar captures water and makes it unavailable for microbes
D) Sugar wards off offending bacterial agents present in the jelly
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
31.
Which of the following would most likely result from placing cooked hamburger patties on the same plate that held the uncooked patties?
A) Flavor declination
B) Meat juice retention
C) Fat drippings exudation
D) Microbial cross-contamination
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
32.
The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed
A) bioaccumulation.
B) hyperconcentration.
C) evolutionary containment.
D) functional high level accumulation.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
33.
Which of the following is not among the features of nitrites?
A) Preserve color
B) Impart off-flavors
C) Present naturally in foods
D) Protect against bacterial growth
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
34.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
35.
Which of the following is not one of the three major factors affecting world population growth?
A) Birth rates
B) Death rates
C) Standard of living
D) Scientific knowledge
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
36.
A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A) a plague.
B) a famine.
C) food poverty.
D) food insecurity.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
37.
How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people?
A) About the same
B) One-half as much
C) 5 times as much
D) 10 times as much
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
38.
If the world's production of food energy were equally distributed among the world's population, approximately how many kcalories per day would be available to each person?
A) 650
B) 1000
C) 1450
D) 2720
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
39.
What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A) Oral rehydration therapy
B) Ozone purified waste water
C) Protein-energy repletion formula
D) Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
40.
Which of the following is not a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy?
A) Rice
B) Corn
C) Wheat
D) Sorghum
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
41.
As a church volunteer, you propose implementation of a food recovery program. Which of the following would not be a part of your proposal to the church board of directors?
A) Collect prepared foods from commercial kitchens
B) Salvage perishable items from wholesalers and markets
C) Gather crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest
D) Collect applications for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program to provide for any member or non-member of the church requesting assistance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
42.
What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth?
A) The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth's cultivable land
B) The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time
C) The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants
D) The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth's water mass
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
43.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of poverty and hunger?
A) Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household
B) The highest rates of obesity occur among the poorest
C) The provision of food to the poor actually helps to prevent obesity
D) The poor prefer to purchase energy-dense foods despite their higher cost compared with vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
44.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
45.
Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
A) insecurity.
B) insufficiency.
C) vulnerability.
D) precariousness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
46.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
47.
What is the international poverty line per day for a single person?
A) $1.08
B) $3.75
C) $5.15
D) $10.00
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
48.
In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to correct the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working?
A) Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated
B) Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished
C) Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children
D) Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
49.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) solar.
D) natural gas.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:10:06 AM
Points Awarded 8.00
Points Missed 42.00
Percentage 16.0%
Incorrect
1.
What are cytokines?
A) Scavengers of the immune system
B) Specialized antibodies that retain B-cell memory
C) Specialized proteins that activate responses to infection
D) Highly specific cells that attack only one type of antigen
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
2.
Which of the following is a feature of the DASH diet?
A) It works synergistically with reduction of sodium intake
B) It was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis
C) It is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin B12
D) It includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
3.
Approximately how many million people in the United States are believed to have hypertension?
A) 10
B) 30
C) 65
D) 100
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
4.
What term describes an event, such as a GI infection, that results in decreased nutrient absorption, which in turn results in inability to synthesize sufficient immune cells and immune factors, thereby leading to increased susceptibility to another GI infection?
A) Synergistic
B) Antagonistic
C) Enteroimmune recirculation
D) Reinforced negative nutrition spiral
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
5.
What is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old Pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)?
A) Ephedra
B) Paclitaxal
C) Kombucha
D) Germanium
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
6.
Risk factors that predict the development of hypertension include all of the following except
A) age.
B) race.
C) salt intake.
D) family background.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
7.
What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis?
A) HDL
B) LDL
C) HDK
D) VLDK
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
8.
Being obese is known to increase the probabilities of contracting all of the following diseases except
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) kwashiorkor.
D) hypertension.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
9.
The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) synergisms.
D) immunoglobulins.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
10.
A person with diabetes is most likely to develop
A) AIDS.
B) cancer.
C) heart attacks.
D) diverticulosis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
11.
The role of diet for people with diabetes includes all of the following except
A) sugar and sugar-containing foods need not be avoided.
B) the glycemic effect of foods should be a primary consideration.
C) diets should provide a consistent carbohydrate intake spaced throughout the day.
D) the dietary amount of carbohydrate is more important than the source of carbohydrate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
12.
Dietary guidelines believed to help protect against cancer include all of the following except
A) decreasing alcohol intake.
B) avoiding charbroiled meats.
C) decreasing saturated fat intake.
D) consumption of cruciferous vegetables.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
13.
The most important organs of the immune system include all of the following except
A) spleen.
B) muscle.
C) lymph nodes.
D) thymus gland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
14.
Which of the following is a feature of blood triglycerides and risk for coronary heart disease?
A) High triglyceride levels are now designated as a major risk factor
B) Nonfasting triglyceride levels more strongly predict risk than fasting levels
C) High triglyceride levels correlate strongly with high HDL levels, which is a predictor for low risk
D) Triglyceride concentrations are low in very-low-density lipoproteins, which correlate with risk for metabolic syndrome
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
15.
Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol?
A) Begin drug treatment
B) Consume a high-protein diet
C) Consume large amounts of fish and fish oils
D) Achieve and maintain appropriate body weight
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
16.
Which of the following is the most likely reason that a blood pressure reading should be repeated before confirming a diagnosis of hypertension?
A) The person reacted emotionally to the procedure
B) Blood pressure measuring devices often give inaccurate readings
C) The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too tightly on the arm
D) The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too loosely on the arm
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
17.
What is the primary source of dietary mercury?
A) Seafood
B) Legumes
C) Unfiltered water
D) Undercooked poultry
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
18.
All of the following are characteristics of mercury in nutrition except
A) mercury toxicity damages the developing brain.
B) farm-raised fish typically have less mercury than wild-caught fish.
C) larger fish have less muscle mercury due to the dilutional effect of size.
D) the EPA regulates commercial fishing to monitor mercury levels in fish.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
19.
What organization is responsible for setting tolerance guidelines for the use of a pesticide on food?
A) EPA
B) FDA
C) WHO
D) DDT
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
20.
Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it
A) has been irradiated.
B) contains genetically engineered ingredients.
C) was made with at least 95% organic ingredients.
D) was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
21.
Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods commonly eaten in large quantities by
A) children.
B) adolescents.
C) adults.
D) elderly.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
22.
What level of cancer risk to human beings from a food additive is accepted by the FDA?
A) 0
B) 1 in 1,000
C) 1 in 1,000,000
D) 1 in 100,000,000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
23.
All of the following are among the characteristics of antimicrobial food additives except
A) nitrates also preserve the color of hot dogs.
B) ordinary baking powder is one of the most common.
C) sodium propionate is used in cheeses and margarine.
D) nitrites can be converted to cancer-causing substances in the stomach.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
24.
What defines the FDA's de minimis rule?
A) A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods
B) The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected
C) The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame
D) The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of cancer to human beings
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
25.
What list is composed of substances widely used for many years without apparent ill effects?
A) FDA
B) GRAS
C) Delaney
D) Additive Safety
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
26.
Which of the following is a feature affecting the public water supply?
A) Surface water is derived primarily from underground aquifers
B) Contaminants break down more slowly in groundwater than in surface water
C) Groundwater sources are most susceptible to contamination by runoff of pesticides and wastes from highways
D) Contaminants such as gasoline from leaking underground storage tanks are likely to primarily affect the quality of surface water
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
27.
Which of the following substances in the diet would typically have the lowest margin of safety?
A) Table salt
B) Pesticides
C) Preservatives
D) Color additives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
28.
Which of the following dictates that an additive must not have been found to be a carcinogen in any test on animals or human beings?
A) Additive Rules
B) Delaney Clause
C) FDA GRAS List
D) Contaminant Law
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
29.
Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in animals raised for human consumption?
A) Antibiotics are used in animal feed to enhance growth
B) Antibiotic use in dairy cows often gives the milk off-flavors
C) The antibiotic levels are essentially zero by the time the food reaches consumers
D) Although some antibiotics may be present in the food, the level is too low to induce adverse side effects even in sensitive people
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
30.
What is meant when the FDA invokes a certification requirement?
A) The suppliers must show proof that the foods were produced and processed in the United States
B) A new food is being introduced on the U.S. market and the processing method must first be approved by the FDA
C) The food manufacturer must have its products tested to guarantee that certain chemicals do not exceed legal limits
D) The FDA laboratories have tested a new food product and approved all remaining pesticide residues as falling within agency guidelines
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
31.
What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry?
A) 1/10
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 4/5
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
32.
What is the only food intended to be consumed raw in which the FDA allows the use of sulfite additives?
A) Grapes
B) Lettuce
C) Carrots
D) Strawberries
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
33.
Which of the following is a feature of hormones used in food production?
A) Hormone-treated cattle result in leaner meats
B) The cost of using hormones usually results in higher-priced but better quality products
C) Bovine growth hormone given to cattle does not show residues in the meat or milk
D) They are naturally occurring substances and therefore require only minimal regulation by the FDA and USDA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
34.
What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A) WIC
B) EAT
C) National Food Resource Program
D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
35.
All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) solar.
D) natural gas.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
36.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of poverty and hunger?
A) Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household
B) The highest rates of obesity occur among the poorest
C) The provision of food to the poor actually helps to prevent obesity
D) The poor prefer to purchase energy-dense foods despite their higher cost compared with vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
37.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
38.
About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 100 kcalories of grains?
A) 1
B) 33
C) 50
D) 75
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
39.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
40.
What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A) Integrated production
B) Progressive agriculture
C) Sustainable agriculture
D) Resource management production
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
41.
What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP?
A) $10
B) $35
C) $100
D) $145
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
42.
All of the following are major factors affecting population growth except
A) birth rates.
B) death rates.
C) ozone depletion.
D) standards of living.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
43.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
44.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
45.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
46.
In the practice of agriculture, approximately what percentage more energy is required to produce most animal foods in comparison to grains?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 450
D) 1000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
47.
What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
A) Feeding America
B) Goodwill Food Assistance
C) Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
D) Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
48.
SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase all of the following except
A) soap.
B) seeds.
C) cereal.
D) cola beverages.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
49.
What is aquaculture?
A) A seaweed growth system
B) The practice of fish farming
C) A water purification system
D) The raising of plants in a water environment
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
50.
How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people?
A) About the same
B) One-half as much
C) 5 times as much
D) 10 times as much
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:12:15 AM
Points Awarded 10.00
Points Missed 40.00
Percentage 20.0%
Incorrect
1.
In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
D) Adult-onset diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
2.
Which of the following is a characteristic of factors associated with hypertension?
A) Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25
B) Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive
C) Three to 4 alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension
D) African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than whites'
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
3.
Which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens?
A) Milk
B) Fiber
C) Omega-3 fats
D) Refined starches
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
4.
A person who produces a normal amount of insulin but whose cells show suboptimal response is said to be
A) polydipsic.
B) insulin resistant.
C) hyperglucagonemic.
D) pancreatic beta-cell deficient.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
5.
All of the following are characteristics of diabetes mellitus except
A) type 1 diabetes can occur at any age.
B) type 2 diabetes develops primarily when people reach adulthood.
C) the two major forms are variations of the insulin-dependent type.
D) the most common form is characterized by resistance to insulin by body cells.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
6.
Diabetes is known to increase the risk for all of the following except
A) stroke.
B) cancer.
C) blindness.
D) kidney failure.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
7.
What is the term given to mounds of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develop in the artery walls?
A) Plaques
B) Angina streaks
C) Arterial thickening
D) Pre-thromboemboli
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
8.
HIV is known to be transmitted by direct contact with contaminated body fluids from all of the following sources except
A) saliva.
B) blood.
C) semen.
D) vaginal secretions.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
9.
What happens after absorption of carcinogens that are produced on meats from grilling over a direct flame?
A) They are detoxified by the liver
B) They act as initiators for breast cancer
C) They act as promoters for prostate cancer
D) They are subjected to enterohepatic circulation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
10.
Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer?
A) Fiber
B) Inositol and biotin
C) Certain saturated fats
D) Protein from animal sources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
11.
What term describes an abnormal cell mass that is not cancer?
A) Benign tumor
B) Promoting tumor
C) Malignant tumor
D) Premalignant tumor
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
12.
A substance that causes cancer is termed a(n)
A) carcinogen.
B) antipromoter.
C) DNA-modifier.
D) RNA-modifier.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
13.
What is prehypertension?
A) A predictor of stroke risk
B) Slightly high blood pressure
C) A precursor for Syndrome X
D) A component of the metabolic syndrome
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
14.
Which of the following practices is not believed to be protective for all of the following: heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, and cancer?
A) Consuming fiber-rich foods
B) Drinking alcohol only in moderation
C) Engaging in regular physical exercise
D) Consuming fat within the range of 20-35% of total energy
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
15.
A person with diabetes is most likely to develop
A) AIDS.
B) cancer.
C) heart attacks.
D) diverticulosis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
16.
What happens to the risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure of 120/90?
A) It is halved
B) It is doubled
C) It is unchanged
D) It is reduced by 25%
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
17.
What are the chances of contracting diarrhea from travel to other countries?
A) 1 in 2
B) 1 in 10
C) 1 in 100
D) 1 in 1000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
18.
What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes?
A) Contamination
B) Irradiation malfunction
C) Soil heavy metal content
D) Improper storage conditions
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
19.
The extent to which an environmental contaminant becomes harmful is dependent primarily on its
A) persistence.
B) solanine content.
C) soil absorption efficiency.
D) water solubility characteristics.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
20.
Which of the following conditions is known to make people more sensitive to experiencing the MSG symptom complex?
A) Obesity
B) Asthma
C) Diabetes
D) Hypertension
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
21.
Why should consumers use only specialized glass or ceramic containers rather than common packaging materials to heat foods in microwave ovens?
A) Several types of common packaging materials may catch on fire
B) Many common packaging materials contain traces of PCBs, which are released into the food
C) There are substances in common packaging materials that can migrate into the food and present a health hazard
D) Many substances in common packaging materials interact with flavor components in food and impart off-flavors
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
22.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism illness?
A) It is rarely fatal and victims usually recover completely
B) It is caused by a toxic compound rather than by invasion of pathogenic bacteria
C) It is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with a combination of aflatoxin and mold
D) It most often occurs from eating foods that were stored under aerobic conditions of high pH
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
23.
What is meant by potable water?
A) Water fit for drinking
B) Water that must be boiled before drinking
C) Water that must be chlorinated before drinking
D) Water suitable only for use on lawns and gardens
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
24.
Which of the following is a flavor-enhancing food additive?
A) BHT
B) Beta-carotene
C) Sodium propionate
D) Monosodium glutamate
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
25.
What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry?
A) The fish becomes tenderized
B) Mature parasitic worms are killed
C) Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated
D) The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
26.
You are presenting a general seminar at a food safety convention. At the end of your talk, an audience member barrages you with questions about irradiation of foods causing people to be exposed to radioactive food. How should you respond?
A) Irradiation techniques do not in any way produce radioactive foods
B) There is only cause for concern when treating foods such as milk, grapefruits, eggs, and high-fat meats
C) Radioactive foods have been approved for consumption by the American Medical Association, the FAO, and the WHO
D) Cold pasteurization is the only technique that results in radioactive foods and as long as they are avoided, there is no cause for concern
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
27.
Common foods approved for irradiation include all of the following except
A) eggs.
B) milk.
C) wheat.
D) strawberries.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
28.
What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers?
A) 140
B) 152
C) 165
D) 180
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
29.
Which of the following is a characteristic of home water treatments?
A) Activated carbon filters are effective in removing chlorine
B) Most home filtration systems are highly efficient at removing virtually all types of contaminants
C) Boiling the water is effective at removing all organic chemicals as well as killing microorganisms
D) Most home filtration systems combine the processes of heavy metal removal, killing of microorganisms, softening of the water, and addition of enhancers
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
30.
Which of the following practices is safest for minimizing microbial contamination of prepared foods?
A) Store food in a controlled atmosphere of chlorine bleach vapors
B) Restrict the food's exposure at room temperature to a maximum of 4-6 hours
C) Restrict the food's exposure at between 40° F and 140° F to a maximum of 2 hours
D) Store food under air-tight conditions at a temperature of 32° F for a maximum of 1 month
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
31.
Which of the following are examples of heavy metals?
A) Mercury and lead
B) Iron and chromium
C) Carbon and nitrogen
D) Molybdenum and fluoride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
Which of the following is the most common use for adding carotenoids to foods?
A) To color the food
B) To extend shelflife
C) To inhibit microbial growth
D) To inhibit nitrosamine formation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
33.
The seal "Graded by USDA" that appears on packaged meat and poultry means that the product is
A) uncooked.
B) not hazardous.
C) free of bacteria.
D) assessed for tenderness.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
34.
What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
A) Feeding America
B) Goodwill Food Assistance
C) Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
D) Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
35.
What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo?
A) The iron content is higher
B) The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation
C) The fat content is lower and the fat has more omega-3 fatty acids
D) There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
36.
What is aquaculture?
A) A seaweed growth system
B) The practice of fish farming
C) A water purification system
D) The raising of plants in a water environment
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
37.
Which of the following is not a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy?
A) Rice
B) Corn
C) Wheat
D) Sorghum
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
38.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
39.
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
A) FAP
B) WIC
C) EAT
D) MOW
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
40.
Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
A) insecurity.
B) insufficiency.
C) vulnerability.
D) precariousness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
41.
The nutrients most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) iodine.
C) protein.
D) vitamin A.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
42.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
43.
All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) solar.
D) natural gas.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
44.
All of the following are major factors affecting population growth except
A) birth rates.
B) death rates.
C) ozone depletion.
D) standards of living.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
45.
As a church volunteer, you propose implementation of a food recovery program. Which of the following would not be a part of your proposal to the church board of directors?
A) Collect prepared foods from commercial kitchens
B) Salvage perishable items from wholesalers and markets
C) Gather crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest
D) Collect applications for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program to provide for any member or non-member of the church requesting assistance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
46.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
47.
All of the following are features of herbicide use except
A) it pollutes the water and air.
B) it often injures more than just weeds.
C) it usually is safe for farmers to practice.
D) it encourages evolution of herbicide-resistant weeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
48.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
49.
How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people?
A) About the same
B) One-half as much
C) 5 times as much
D) 10 times as much
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase all of the following except
A) soap.
B) seeds.
C) cereal.
D) cola beverages.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:14:46 AM
Points Awarded 9.00
Points Missed 41.00
Percentage 18.0%
Incorrect
1.
What happens after absorption of carcinogens that are produced on meats from grilling over a direct flame?
A) They are detoxified by the liver
B) They act as initiators for breast cancer
C) They act as promoters for prostate cancer
D) They are subjected to enterohepatic circulation
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
2.
The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as
A) polyuria.
B) polyphagia.
C) polyuresis.
D) pseudodiuresis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
3.
A person who hasn't consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 101 mg/dL. This person would be classified as
A) normal.
B) diabetic.
C) prediabetic.
D) impaired glucose tolerant.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
4.
Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of
A) 21.
B) 30.
C) 40.
D) 55.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
5.
What are cytokines?
A) Scavengers of the immune system
B) Specialized antibodies that retain B-cell memory
C) Specialized proteins that activate responses to infection
D) Highly specific cells that attack only one type of antigen
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
6.
Approximately how many people in North America have HIV or AIDS?
A) 100,000
B) 550,000
C) 1.3 million
D) 3.3 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
7.
What is ayurveda?
A) A system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis
B) An oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth
C) A Hindu system for enhancing the body's ability to prevent illness and to heal itself
D) A variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
8.
All of the following are among the symptoms of diabetes except
A) polyuria.
B) polydipsia.
C) polyphagia.
D) polysaccharidosis.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
9.
Markers for inflammation as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease include high levels of all of the following except
A) CRP.
B) ephedra.
C) Lp-PLA (2).
D) LDL cholesterol.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
10.
Why is complementary and alternative medicine considered to be unconventional medicine?
A) It is not taught in medical schools
B) Insurance companies refuse to cover it
C) Safety and effectiveness are not well established
D) It is used primarily by chiropractors and herbalists
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
11.
What percentage of people with type 2 diabetes are obese?
A) 10-20
B) 50
C) 75
D) 80-90
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
12.
Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to
A) 1 drink for both women and men.
B) 1 drink for women and 2 for men.
C) 2 drinks for both women and men.
D) 2 drinks for women and 4 for men.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
13.
People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of
A) sodium.
B) calcium.
C) potassium.
D) phosphate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
14.
Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States does not bear a relationship to diet?
A) Cancer
B) Heart disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Pneumonia and influenza
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
15.
A person's level of C-reactive protein appears to be a strong predictor for
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) a heart attack.
D) HIV progression.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
16.
The DASH diet was developed to lower the risk for
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) hypertension.
D) metabolic syndrome.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
17.
Which of the following is a characteristic of solanine?
A) It is not destroyed by cooking
B) It enhances absorption of lead
C) It antagonizes the thyroid gland
D) It is destroyed when potatoes start to sprout
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
18.
A few years ago a foodborne illness outbreak was reported by a national restaurant chain. After dozens of people were infected, authorities determined that employees of the restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for produce items such as lettuce. Which of the following terms most likely describes the employees' neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill?
A) Contamination
B) Cross-contamination
C) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
D) Inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
19.
What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers?
A) 140
B) 152
C) 165
D) 180
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
20.
What government agency is charged with protecting agriculture and the food supply?
A) The Food Safety and Security Agency
B) The Agricultural and Biosecurity Agency
C) The Antiterrorism Subcommittee on Food Security
D) The FDA subcommittee on Food Safety and Hazards Agency
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
21.
Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in livestock?
A) Development of antibiotic-resistant organisms is very rare
B) Proper cooking of the meat destroys any traces of antibiotics
C) Farmers use more than 5 times more antibiotic in livestock than physicians use in people
D) Because the antibiotics have a short half-life, the FDA permits slaughter of the animals at any time
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
22.
What term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm?
A) Risk
B) Safety
C) Hazard
D) Toxicity
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
23.
Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging?
A) PBBs
B) URPs
C) Dioxins
D) BHT and BHA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
24.
Why should consumers use only specialized glass or ceramic containers rather than common packaging materials to heat foods in microwave ovens?
A) Several types of common packaging materials may catch on fire
B) Many common packaging materials contain traces of PCBs, which are released into the food
C) There are substances in common packaging materials that can migrate into the food and present a health hazard
D) Many substances in common packaging materials interact with flavor components in food and impart off-flavors
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
25.
Which of the following is the most common pathogenic microorganism in U.S. foods?
A) Salmonella
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium perfringens
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
26.
What is the standard chemical used to remove caffeine from coffee beans?
A) Nitric acid
B) Sodium propionate
C) Methylene chloride
D) Polybrominated biphenyl
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
27.
The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of
A) sulfite.
B) sodium.
C) acrylamide.
D) bicarbonate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
28.
Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States?
A) It decreases udder infections in cows
B) None can be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it
C) If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract
D) If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth hormone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
29.
To minimize the possibility of foodborne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal temperature (°F) of at least
A) 125.
B) 140.
C) 160.
D) 195.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
30.
In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents?
A) Brain
B) Muscle
C) Intestines
D) Central nervous system
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
31.
What organization is responsible for setting tolerance guidelines for the use of a pesticide on food?
A) EPA
B) FDA
C) WHO
D) DDT
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
What is meant when the FDA invokes a certification requirement?
A) The suppliers must show proof that the foods were produced and processed in the United States
B) A new food is being introduced on the U.S. market and the processing method must first be approved by the FDA
C) The food manufacturer must have its products tested to guarantee that certain chemicals do not exceed legal limits
D) The FDA laboratories have tested a new food product and approved all remaining pesticide residues as falling within agency guidelines
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
33.
Which of the following is an example of an indirect food additive?
A) Nitrites
B) Vitamin E
C) Irradiation
D) Tin from the can
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
34.
What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP?
A) $10
B) $35
C) $100
D) $145
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
35.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
36.
SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase all of the following except
A) soap.
B) seeds.
C) cereal.
D) cola beverages.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
37.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
38.
What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A) Integrated production
B) Progressive agriculture
C) Sustainable agriculture
D) Resource management production
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
39.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
40.
Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
A) insecurity.
B) insufficiency.
C) vulnerability.
D) precariousness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
41.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
42.
In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to correct the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working?
A) Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated
B) Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished
C) Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children
D) Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
43.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
44.
What is aquaculture?
A) A seaweed growth system
B) The practice of fish farming
C) A water purification system
D) The raising of plants in a water environment
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
45.
What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A) WIC
B) EAT
C) National Food Resource Program
D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
46.
What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A) Oral rehydration therapy
B) Ozone purified waste water
C) Protein-energy repletion formula
D) Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
47.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
48.
In the practice of agriculture, approximately what percentage more energy is required to produce most animal foods in comparison to grains?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 450
D) 1000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
49.
If the world's production of food energy were equally distributed among the world's population, approximately how many kcalories per day would be available to each person?
A) 650
B) 1000
C) 1450
D) 2720
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:17:14 AM
Points Awarded 7.00
Points Missed 43.00
Percentage 14.0%
Incorrect
1.
What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1?
A) 5-10
B) 10-20
C) 20-35
D) 45-55
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
2.
Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to
A) 1 drink for both women and men.
B) 1 drink for women and 2 for men.
C) 2 drinks for both women and men.
D) 2 drinks for women and 4 for men.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
3.
The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) synergisms.
D) immunoglobulins.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
4.
Risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioral change include all of the following except
A) stress.
B) smoking.
C) heredity.
D) hypertension.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
5.
Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in least formation of carcinogens?
A) Frying
B) Grilling
C) Broiling
D) Marinating before cooking
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
6.
A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to
A) sugar alcohols.
B) glycated fructose.
C) long-chain ketones.
D) glycated corneal membranes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
7.
Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 7
D) 10
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
8.
Insulin stimulates the actions of all the following metabolic activities except
A) fat release.
B) glucose uptake.
C) protein synthesis.
D) glycogen synthesis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
9.
Which of the following is not considered a diet-related risk factor for coronary heart disease?
A) Obesity
B) High sugar intake
C) Glucose intolerance
D) High blood cholesterol
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
10.
Why should the measurement of a person's blood cholesterol be performed at least twice with measurements taken at least one week apart?
A) The person may not be fasting
B) The reliability of laboratory testing instruments for cholesterol is inexact
C) Blood cholesterol concentrations are known to vary significantly day to day
D) The person may have an infection (e.g. cold) which affects cholesterol concentration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
11.
Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer?
A) Fiber
B) Inositol and biotin
C) Certain saturated fats
D) Protein from animal sources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
12.
The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as
A) hydration.
B) polyuresis.
C) polydipsia.
D) hyperhydration.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
13.
The DASH diet is actually the acronym for
A) Dramatic Alternatives to Solving HIV.
B) Diabetes And Sodium Hyperglycemia.
C) Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension.
D) Disorders-Associated Severe Hyperlipidemias.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
14.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
15.
Which of the following is not among the common, long-term consequences of diabetes?
A) Blindness
B) Kidney failure
C) Decrease in infections
D) Increase in heart attacks
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
16.
The sixth leading cause of death in the United States is
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) hypertension.
D) coronary heart disease.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
17.
Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter jejuni?
A) Raw poultry
B) Uncooked seafood
C) Imported soft cheeses
D) Undercooked beef hot dogs
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
18.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of food safety in the kitchen?
A) Cooks should refrain from washing meat and poultry
B) Leftover food from a meal should be promptly refrigerated
C) Hand washing is significantly more effective than hand sanitizers in decreasing bacterial contamination
D) After each step of food preparation, countertops, cutting boards, and hands should be washed in hot, soapy water
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
19.
Which of the following is the most appropriate method to thaw turkey?
A) In the refrigerator
B) At room temperature
C) On top of a warm oven
D) Under very low heat in the oven
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
20.
Why is ground meat more susceptible to microbial contamination than unground meat?
A) It has more surface area
B) It is usually undercooked
C) It has a higher fat content
D) It is not inspected as often
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
21.
The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as
A) sanitization.
B) sterilization.
C) pasteurization.
D) depathogenation.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
22.
Which of the following are examples of heavy metals?
A) Mercury and lead
B) Iron and chromium
C) Carbon and nitrogen
D) Molybdenum and fluoride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
23.
What is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment?
A) It kills microorganisms
B) It complexes with heavy metals
C) It stabilizes the carbon filtration process
D) It promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
24.
The potential of a substance to harm someone is known as a
A) hazard.
B) toxicity.
C) risk level.
D) safety level.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
25.
What organism is responsible for producing the most common food toxin?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Vibrio vulnificus
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Lactobacillis acidophilus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
26.
What organization regulates and monitors the use of chemical additives?
A) FDA
B) HRS
C) WHO
D) USDA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
27.
Which of the following is an example of an indirect food additive?
A) Nitrites
B) Vitamin E
C) Irradiation
D) Tin from the can
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
28.
What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food?
A) 5-10 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) mc031-1.jpg-1 minute
D) 3 minutes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
29.
What is the name of the program that reports on the dietary intakes of pesticides from our food supply?
A) Total Diet Study
B) Toxicant Monitoring Program
C) Food Safety and Health Program
D) Diet and Market Analysis Report
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
30.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism?
A) A chief symptom is diarrhea
B) A full recovery may take years
C) It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus
D) It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
31.
What is the only food intended to be consumed raw in which the FDA allows the use of sulfite additives?
A) Grapes
B) Lettuce
C) Carrots
D) Strawberries
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
What additive common to Asian foods is thought to be associated with acute, temporary intolerance reactions?
A) Nitrites
B) Carotenoids
C) Monosodium glutamate
D) Polybrominated biphenyl
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
33.
All of the following are properties associated with the cooking of hamburgers except
A) color alone is usually indicative of "doneness."
B) burgers should be cooked to an internal temperature of 160° F.
C) some burgers will retain some pink color even when cooked to 175° F.
D) some burgers will turn brown before reaching the recommended temperature.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
34.
The nutrients most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) iodine.
C) protein.
D) vitamin A.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
35.
A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A) a plague.
B) a famine.
C) food poverty.
D) food insecurity.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
36.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
37.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
38.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
39.
What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo?
A) The iron content is higher
B) The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation
C) The fat content is lower and the fat has more omega-3 fatty acids
D) There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
40.
What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A) WIC
B) EAT
C) National Food Resource Program
D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
41.
All of the following are features of herbicide use except
A) it pollutes the water and air.
B) it often injures more than just weeds.
C) it usually is safe for farmers to practice.
D) it encourages evolution of herbicide-resistant weeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
42.
What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A) Oral rehydration therapy
B) Ozone purified waste water
C) Protein-energy repletion formula
D) Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
43.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
44.
SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase all of the following except
A) soap.
B) seeds.
C) cereal.
D) cola beverages.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
45.
What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP?
A) $10
B) $35
C) $100
D) $145
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
46.
Which of the following is not one of the three major factors affecting world population growth?
A) Birth rates
B) Death rates
C) Standard of living
D) Scientific knowledge
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
47.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
48.
In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to correct the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working?
A) Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated
B) Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished
C) Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children
D) Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
49.
Approximately what number of children worldwide die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes?
A) 50,000
B) 500,000
C) 1.2 million
D) 5.6 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
50.
What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A) Integrated production
B) Progressive agriculture
C) Sustainable agriculture
D) Resource management production
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
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Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:19:22 AM
Points Awarded 12.00
Points Missed 38.00
Percentage 24.0%
Correct
1.
Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by the resistance of
A) the ventricles in the atria.
B) blood flow in the arterioles.
C) the carotid arterial flow in the brain.
D) blood flow in the portal venous system.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
2.
What percentage of cells of the body are white blood cells?
A) 0.01
B) 0.1
C) 1
D) 10
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
3.
Approximately what percent of people with high blood pressure are sensitive to salt?
A) 15
B) 35
C) 50
D) 90
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
4.
Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure?
A) People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive
B) Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups
C) People over 30 years of age with hypertension are most likely to be salt-sensitive
D) Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
5.
Kimmy is a curious 4-month-old baby who is just learning how to crawl. On Monday she came across some large dust particles underneath the couch, which caused her to sneeze and develop a runny nose and a cough. Two weeks later she came across more dust from the same place. Which of the following aspects of immunity allows Kimmy's body to remember how to respond to this dust again?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Beta cells
D) Spleen cells
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
6.
Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension?
A) 110 over 50
B) 120 over 70
C) 130 over 80
D) 140 over 90
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
7.
Which of the following is not one of the factors that would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome?
A) Diuretic use
B) Insulin resistance
C) Abdominal obesity
D) High blood triglycerides
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
8.
All of the following are features of low-density lipoproteins and coronary heart disease except
A) LDL is more atherogenic than is HDL.
B) excess LDL cholesterol is vulnerable to oxidation.
C) LDL-lowering treatments are designed to stabilize arterial plaques.
D) excess LDL cholesterol in the blood is removed by high-density lipoproteins.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
9.
All of the following are associations between smoking and coronary heart disease except
A) smoking damages platelets.
B) smoking increases blood pressure.
C) smoking as a risk factor for CHD is the same for women and men.
D) cessation of smoking begins to lower the risk of CHD after 36 months.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
10.
Risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioral change include all of the following except
A) stress.
B) smoking.
C) heredity.
D) hypertension.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
11.
What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1?
A) 5-10
B) 10-20
C) 20-35
D) 45-55
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
12.
Which of the following is not among the recommendations issued by health professionals to reduce cancer risks?
A) Limit intake of red meats
B) Moderate, if any, intake of alcohol
C) Increase intake of foods high in iron
D) Eat at least 5 servings a day of vegetables and fruits
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
13.
What is the magnitude of the increase in risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure reading of 140/80 compared with the optimum blood pressure?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
14.
The most important organs of the immune system include all of the following except
A) spleen.
B) muscle.
C) lymph nodes.
D) thymus gland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
15.
A substance that causes cancer is termed a(n)
A) carcinogen.
B) antipromoter.
C) DNA-modifier.
D) RNA-modifier.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
16.
Which of the following practices is not believed to be protective for all of the following: heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, and cancer?
A) Consuming fiber-rich foods
B) Drinking alcohol only in moderation
C) Engaging in regular physical exercise
D) Consuming fat within the range of 20-35% of total energy
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
17.
What is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a membrane?
A) Ozonation
B) Distillation
C) Reverse osmosis
D) Activated carbon filtration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
18.
What is the largest single group of food additives?
A) Flavoring agents
B) Artificial sweeteners
C) Antimicrobial agents
D) Artificial coloring agents
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
19.
Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as
A) biofortification.
B) reverse DNA enrichment.
C) USDA approved enrichment.
D) frankenfood transdevelopment.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
20.
Which of the following is a feature of naturally occurring food toxicants?
A) Lima beans contain deadly cyanide compounds
B) The toxic solanine in potatoes is inactivated by cooking
C) The toxic laetrile in certain fruit seeds is a moderately effective cancer treatment
D) Mustard greens and radishes contain compounds that are known to worsen a cholesterol problem
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
21.
Which of the following is not one of the features of sulfites?
A) Improve flavor
B) Prevent oxidation
C) Destroy appreciable amounts of thiamin
D) Cause adverse reactions in some people
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
22.
What is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment?
A) It kills microorganisms
B) It complexes with heavy metals
C) It stabilizes the carbon filtration process
D) It promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
23.
Among food-borne infections, what organisms are the: chief cause of illness/chief cause of death?
A) Listeria/Yersinia
B) Salmonella/Listeria
C) Giardia/Campylobacter
D) Campylobacter/Salmonella
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
24.
Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter jejuni?
A) Raw poultry
B) Uncooked seafood
C) Imported soft cheeses
D) Undercooked beef hot dogs
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
25.
A feature of sulfite food additives is that they
A) are frequently used in wines.
B) inhibit growth of most microbes.
C) interact with folate to inhibit its absorption.
D) are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
26.
Which of the following is a property of chlorination of the public water system?
A) It has a high cost to benefit ratio
B) It imparts a pleasant taste to the water
C) It reduces dental caries formation in children
D) It is associated with an increase in bladder cancer
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
27.
Approximately what percentage of U.S. beverage choices consists of bottled water?
A) 2
B) 11
C) 33
D) 55
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
28.
What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry?
A) The fish becomes tenderized
B) Mature parasitic worms are killed
C) Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated
D) The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
29.
Two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the consumption of a common food is termed a(n)
A) rash.
B) outbreak.
C) epidemic.
D) toxic incidence.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
30.
Which of the following practices is safest for minimizing microbial contamination of prepared foods?
A) Store food in a controlled atmosphere of chlorine bleach vapors
B) Restrict the food's exposure at room temperature to a maximum of 4-6 hours
C) Restrict the food's exposure at between 40° F and 140° F to a maximum of 2 hours
D) Store food under air-tight conditions at a temperature of 32° F for a maximum of 1 month
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
31.
What is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides?
A) FAO
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) USDA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States?
A) It decreases udder infections in cows
B) None can be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it
C) If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract
D) If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth hormone
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
33.
What additive common to Asian foods is thought to be associated with acute, temporary intolerance reactions?
A) Nitrites
B) Carotenoids
C) Monosodium glutamate
D) Polybrominated biphenyl
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
34.
In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to correct the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working?
A) Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated
B) Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished
C) Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children
D) Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
35.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
36.
SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase all of the following except
A) soap.
B) seeds.
C) cereal.
D) cola beverages.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
37.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
38.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
39.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
40.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
41.
As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor's office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, "...and thus, hunger worsens poverty...." The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty?
A) Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care
B) No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty
C) Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households
D) Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
42.
Approximately how many people, in millions, are served by the U.S. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 13
D) 28
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
43.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
44.
All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) solar.
D) natural gas.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
45.
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
A) FAP
B) WIC
C) EAT
D) MOW
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
46.
What fraction of children worldwide are born underweight?
A) 1/10
B) 1/6
C) 1/3
D) 1/2
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
47.
The nutrients most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) iodine.
C) protein.
D) vitamin A.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
48.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
49.
What is aquaculture?
A) A seaweed growth system
B) The practice of fish farming
C) A water purification system
D) The raising of plants in a water environment
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
50.
Which of the following is not a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy?
A) Rice
B) Corn
C) Wheat
D) Sorghum
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
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Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:21:31 AM
Points Awarded 5.00
Points Missed 45.00
Percentage 10.0%
Incorrect
1.
In a person with a BMI of 50, what minimum number of pounds must be lost to obtain a measurable improvement in glucose, blood lipids, and blood pressure?
A) 10-20
B) 40-50
C) 75-100
D) More than 100
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
2.
Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer?
A) Fiber
B) Inositol and biotin
C) Certain saturated fats
D) Protein from animal sources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
3.
Which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen?
A) Cancer-initiating substance
B) Cancer-inhibitory substance
C) Cancer treatment substance
D) Cancer antipromoter substance
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
4.
Which of the following is not one of the factors that would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome?
A) Diuretic use
B) Insulin resistance
C) Abdominal obesity
D) High blood triglycerides
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
5.
What treatment is effective against lead poisoning and is also considered an alternative therapy for cardiovascular disease?
A) Ozone injections
B) Chelation therapy
C) Biofield therapeutics
D) Hydroexpulsion therapeutics
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
6.
Dietary guidelines believed to help protect against cancer include all of the following except
A) decreasing alcohol intake.
B) avoiding charbroiled meats.
C) decreasing saturated fat intake.
D) consumption of cruciferous vegetables.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
7.
The DASH diet is actually the acronym for
A) Dramatic Alternatives to Solving HIV.
B) Diabetes And Sodium Hyperglycemia.
C) Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension.
D) Disorders-Associated Severe Hyperlipidemias.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
8.
Diabetes is known to increase the risk for all of the following except
A) stroke.
B) cancer.
C) blindness.
D) kidney failure.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
9.
Why is complementary and alternative medicine considered to be unconventional medicine?
A) It is not taught in medical schools
B) Insurance companies refuse to cover it
C) Safety and effectiveness are not well established
D) It is used primarily by chiropractors and herbalists
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
10.
Risk factors that predict the development of hypertension include all of the following except
A) age.
B) race.
C) salt intake.
D) family background.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
11.
The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) synergisms.
D) immunoglobulins.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
12.
Which of the following is not considered a diet-related risk factor for coronary heart disease?
A) Obesity
B) High sugar intake
C) Glucose intolerance
D) High blood cholesterol
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
13.
Approximately how many people in North America have HIV or AIDS?
A) 100,000
B) 550,000
C) 1.3 million
D) 3.3 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
14.
A tumor that releases cells, leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body, is said to
A) promote.
B) augment.
C) metastasize.
D) infiltrate downstream.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
15.
Markers for inflammation as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease include high levels of all of the following except
A) CRP.
B) ephedra.
C) Lp-PLA (2).
D) LDL cholesterol.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
16.
What term describes an abnormal cell mass that is not cancer?
A) Benign tumor
B) Promoting tumor
C) Malignant tumor
D) Premalignant tumor
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
17.
Which of the following substances added to foods inhibits formation of botulinum toxin?
A) BHA
B) Nitrites
C) Table salt
D) Sodium ascorbate
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
18.
What processing method allows for cartons of milk to be shelved in grocery stores at room temperature?
A) Prolonged pasteurization
B) Boiling for exactly 10 minutes
C) Ultrahigh temperature treatment
D) Combination irradiation/pasteurization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
19.
Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it
A) has been irradiated.
B) contains genetically engineered ingredients.
C) was made with at least 95% organic ingredients.
D) was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
20.
Among food-borne infections, what organisms are the: chief cause of illness/chief cause of death?
A) Listeria/Yersinia
B) Salmonella/Listeria
C) Giardia/Campylobacter
D) Campylobacter/Salmonella
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
21.
Which of the following is a food contaminant formed during chlorine treatment of wood used in the manufacture of paper?
A) Dioxin
B) Alginate
C) Acrylamide
D) Hydrochloride
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
22.
What carcinogen is known to be produced when high-carbohydrate foods are cooked at high temperatures?
A) Dioxins
B) Acrylamides
C) Carrageenan
D) Nitrosamines
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
23.
Which of the following methods of thawing meats or poultry increases health risk?
A) In the refrigerator
B) At room temperature
C) In a microwave oven
D) Under cool running water
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
24.
Which of the following substances in the diet would typically have the lowest margin of safety?
A) Table salt
B) Pesticides
C) Preservatives
D) Color additives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
25.
Of the amount of pesticides considered acceptable (safe) for human consumption, approximately what percent is actually ingested by people in the United States?
A) 1
B) 10
C) 50
D) 100
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
26.
Sulfites are a prohibited additive for refined grain products in the United States because they
A) destroy thiamin.
B) impart off colors.
C) impart off flavors.
D) shorten the shelf-life.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
27.
What defines the FDA's de minimis rule?
A) A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods
B) The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected
C) The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame
D) The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of cancer to human beings
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
28.
What branch of the Department of Health and Human Services is responsible for monitoring foodborne illness?
A) EPA
B) FAO
C) CDC
D) WHO
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
29.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many people in the United States experience foodborne illness every year?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 76 million
D) 150 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
30.
What substance is commonly added to public water supplies to disinfect the water?
A) Ozone
B) Fluoride
C) Chlorine
D) Penicillin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
31.
Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the U.S. food supply?
A) Virtually all fish contain mercury
B) Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna
C) Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population group
D) Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
What is the name of the program that reports on the dietary intakes of pesticides from our food supply?
A) Total Diet Study
B) Toxicant Monitoring Program
C) Food Safety and Health Program
D) Diet and Market Analysis Report
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
33.
What government agency is charged with protecting agriculture and the food supply?
A) The Food Safety and Security Agency
B) The Agricultural and Biosecurity Agency
C) The Antiterrorism Subcommittee on Food Security
D) The FDA subcommittee on Food Safety and Hazards Agency
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
34.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
35.
As the newly appointed director of International Supplementation for the World Health Organization (WHO), you propose supplementing the diets of malnourished populations worldwide with nutrients that would markedly improve health and well-being. Which of the following nutrients is least likely to be lacking?
A) Iron
B) Iodine
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin D
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
36.
About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 100 kcalories of grains?
A) 1
B) 33
C) 50
D) 75
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
37.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
38.
As a church volunteer, you propose implementation of a food recovery program. Which of the following would not be a part of your proposal to the church board of directors?
A) Collect prepared foods from commercial kitchens
B) Salvage perishable items from wholesalers and markets
C) Gather crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest
D) Collect applications for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program to provide for any member or non-member of the church requesting assistance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
39.
Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
A) insecurity.
B) insufficiency.
C) vulnerability.
D) precariousness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
40.
Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
A) Poverty
B) High cost of food
C) Excessive food waste
D) Lack of nutrition education
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
41.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
42.
What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A) Oral rehydration therapy
B) Ozone purified waste water
C) Protein-energy repletion formula
D) Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
43.
Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa does not often eat three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself. Melissa is experiencing which of the following?
A) Food insufficiency
B) Food mismanagement
C) Non-sustainable lifestyle
D) Misallocation of resources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
44.
Which of the following is a feature of U.S. agriculture practices?
A) They promote protection of soil and water
B) They frequently lead to higher crop prices
C) They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms
D) They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
45.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
46.
What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A) Integrated production
B) Progressive agriculture
C) Sustainable agriculture
D) Resource management production
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
47.
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
A) FAP
B) WIC
C) EAT
D) MOW
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
48.
All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except
A) oil.
B) coal.
C) solar.
D) natural gas.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
49.
In the practice of agriculture, approximately what percentage more energy is required to produce most animal foods in comparison to grains?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 450
D) 1000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
50.
What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
A) Feeding America
B) Goodwill Food Assistance
C) Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
D) Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:23:41 AM
Points Awarded 13.00
Points Missed 37.00
Percentage 26.0%
Incorrect
1.
The role of diet for people with diabetes includes all of the following except
A) sugar and sugar-containing foods need not be avoided.
B) the glycemic effect of foods should be a primary consideration.
C) diets should provide a consistent carbohydrate intake spaced throughout the day.
D) the dietary amount of carbohydrate is more important than the source of carbohydrate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
2.
Diabetes is known to increase the risk for all of the following except
A) stroke.
B) cancer.
C) blindness.
D) kidney failure.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
3.
All of the following are among the symptoms of diabetes except
A) polyuria.
B) polydipsia.
C) polyphagia.
D) polysaccharidosis.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
4.
Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by the resistance of
A) the ventricles in the atria.
B) blood flow in the arterioles.
C) the carotid arterial flow in the brain.
D) blood flow in the portal venous system.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
5.
The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as
A) polyuria.
B) polyphagia.
C) polyuresis.
D) pseudodiuresis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
6.
Immunoglobulins are produced primarily by
A) T-cells.
B) B-cells.
C) antigens.
D) phagocytes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
7.
A substance that causes cancer is termed a(n)
A) carcinogen.
B) antipromoter.
C) DNA-modifier.
D) RNA-modifier.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
8.
Gangrene is a common complication primarily in people with
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) pancreatitis.
D) HIV infection.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
9.
What happens to the risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure of 120/90?
A) It is halved
B) It is doubled
C) It is unchanged
D) It is reduced by 25%
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
10.
A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is termed
A) angina.
B) a stroke.
C) a vascular event.
D) metabolic syndrome.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
11.
Insulin stimulates the actions of all the following metabolic activities except
A) fat release.
B) glucose uptake.
C) protein synthesis.
D) glycogen synthesis.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
12.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
13.
Beverly is a 48-year-old woman with a strong family history of atherosclerosis. She eats a diet high in fat, smokes, and doesn't exercise much because she typically works 12-hour days. Beverly visits her doctor because she has recently been having chest pains. Her doctor suspects she is at risk for a heart attack. Which of the following would be the most definitive predictor of this suspicion?
A) Platelet count
B) C-reactive protein concentrations
C) LDL cholesterol serum concentrations
D) HDL cholesterol serum concentrations
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
14.
Which of the following is not among the common, long-term consequences of diabetes?
A) Blindness
B) Kidney failure
C) Decrease in infections
D) Increase in heart attacks
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
15.
Approximately how many people in North America have HIV or AIDS?
A) 100,000
B) 550,000
C) 1.3 million
D) 3.3 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
16.
Which of the following is a characteristic of HIV or AIDS?
A) HIV but not AIDS is curable
B) AIDS develops from HIV infection
C) Optimal nutrition can prevent but not cure HIV
D) Since the 1990s, the death rate from HIV and AIDS has increased markedly
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
17.
What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry?
A) 1/10
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 4/5
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
18.
Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as
A) biofortification.
B) reverse DNA enrichment.
C) USDA approved enrichment.
D) frankenfood transdevelopment.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
19.
What is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment?
A) It kills microorganisms
B) It complexes with heavy metals
C) It stabilizes the carbon filtration process
D) It promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
20.
Which of the following is a characteristic of pesticides on foods?
A) Pesticide residues on organic foods are similar to those on conventionally grown foods
B) Pesticides are easier to remove from organic foods because of their greater water-solubility
C) Pesticide residues are substantially reduced by the use of unprocessed animal manures used to grow leafy vegetables
D) Pesticide chemicals in the urine of children given an organic foods diet for 5 days were dramatically lower than before the diet
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
21.
Which of the following is the most appropriate method to thaw turkey?
A) In the refrigerator
B) At room temperature
C) On top of a warm oven
D) Under very low heat in the oven
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
22.
All of the following represent matches between a naturally occurring toxin and its food except
A) solanine in potatoes.
B) goitrogens in cabbage.
C) cyanogens in lima beans.
D) acrylamides in tomatoes.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
23.
What is the most common source of bottled water?
A) Glacier run-off
B) Springs and wells
C) Rivers in the wilderness
D) Municipal water supplies
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
24.
A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomach ache, fever, and vomiting. Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. The most likely organism causing these symptoms is
A) E. coli.
B) Salmonella.
C) Perfringens.
D) Campylobacter jejuni.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
25.
The most common symptoms of foodborne infection include all of the following except
A) fever.
B) cramps.
C) diarrhea.
D) double vision.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
26.
Common symptoms of foodborne illness caused by the Salmonella organism include all of the following except
A) diarrhea.
B) vomiting.
C) abdominal cramps.
D) low body temperature.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
27.
Which of the following practices is safest for minimizing microbial contamination of prepared foods?
A) Store food in a controlled atmosphere of chlorine bleach vapors
B) Restrict the food's exposure at room temperature to a maximum of 4-6 hours
C) Restrict the food's exposure at between 40° F and 140° F to a maximum of 2 hours
D) Store food under air-tight conditions at a temperature of 32° F for a maximum of 1 month
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
28.
A child is brought into the emergency room with breathing difficulties. He also has difficulty swallowing and speaking. The mother mentions that he ate some home-canned beans yesterday. You suspect microbiological food poisoning. The most likely toxin is
A) botulinum toxin.
B) giardiasis toxin.
C) Salmonella toxin.
D) campylobacteria toxin.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
29.
What is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a membrane?
A) Ozonation
B) Distillation
C) Reverse osmosis
D) Activated carbon filtration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
30.
Common foods approved for irradiation include all of the following except
A) eggs.
B) milk.
C) wheat.
D) strawberries.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
31.
A feature of sulfite food additives is that they
A) are frequently used in wines.
B) inhibit growth of most microbes.
C) interact with folate to inhibit its absorption.
D) are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
32.
Sulfites are a prohibited additive for refined grain products in the United States because they
A) destroy thiamin.
B) impart off colors.
C) impart off flavors.
D) shorten the shelf-life.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
33.
All of the following are characteristics of mercury in nutrition except
A) mercury toxicity damages the developing brain.
B) farm-raised fish typically have less mercury than wild-caught fish.
C) larger fish have less muscle mercury due to the dilutional effect of size.
D) the EPA regulates commercial fishing to monitor mercury levels in fish.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
34.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
35.
Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
A) Poverty
B) High cost of food
C) Excessive food waste
D) Lack of nutrition education
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
36.
Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
A) It makes the soil more porous
B) It helps preserve the water supply
C) It contributes to soil preservation
D) It increases the salt content in the soil
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
37.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of poverty and hunger?
A) Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household
B) The highest rates of obesity occur among the poorest
C) The provision of food to the poor actually helps to prevent obesity
D) The poor prefer to purchase energy-dense foods despite their higher cost compared with vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
38.
On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A) 25
B) 100
C) 750
D) 1500
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
39.
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
A) FAP
B) WIC
C) EAT
D) MOW
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
40.
About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 100 kcalories of grains?
A) 1
B) 33
C) 50
D) 75
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
41.
Approximately how many people, in millions, are served by the U.S. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 13
D) 28
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
42.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
43.
In the practice of agriculture, approximately what percentage more energy is required to produce most animal foods in comparison to grains?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 450
D) 1000
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
44.
Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
A) insecurity.
B) insufficiency.
C) vulnerability.
D) precariousness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
45.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
46.
A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A) a plague.
B) a famine.
C) food poverty.
D) food insecurity.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
47.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
48.
As a church volunteer, you propose implementation of a food recovery program. Which of the following would not be a part of your proposal to the church board of directors?
A) Collect prepared foods from commercial kitchens
B) Salvage perishable items from wholesalers and markets
C) Gather crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest
D) Collect applications for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program to provide for any member or non-member of the church requesting assistance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
49.
What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A) Integrated production
B) Progressive agriculture
C) Sustainable agriculture
D) Resource management production
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
50.
What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo?
A) The iron content is higher
B) The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation
C) The fat content is lower and the fat has more omega-3 fatty acids
D) There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Close
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Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:25:51 AM
Points Awarded 12.00
Points Missed 38.00
Percentage 24.0%
Incorrect
1.
Which of the following is not among the recommendations issued by health professionals to reduce cancer risks?
A) Limit intake of red meats
B) Moderate, if any, intake of alcohol
C) Increase intake of foods high in iron
D) Eat at least 5 servings a day of vegetables and fruits
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
2.
A tumor that releases cells, leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body, is said to
A) promote.
B) augment.
C) metastasize.
D) infiltrate downstream.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
3.
In the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is
A) hypoglycemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) temporary kidney shutdown.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
4.
Which of the following is a characteristic of drug therapy for hypertension?
A) Antihypertensive drugs work by lowering blood volume
B) The most frequently prescribed drug therapies are DASH inhibitors
C) Most people with hypertension need only one medicine to reduce blood pressure
D) Major side effects of antihypertensive drugs are depletion of body sodium and phosphorus
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
5.
Which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease?
A) Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases
B) Diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases
C) Dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood
D) Dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
6.
Approximately how many people in North America have HIV or AIDS?
A) 100,000
B) 550,000
C) 1.3 million
D) 3.3 million
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
7.
Conventional medicine and alternative medical therapies are commonly linked together into a practice called
A) interactive therapy.
B) yin and yang medicine.
C) herbal-assisted healing.
D) complementary medicine.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
8.
The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(an)
A) aorta.
B) plaque.
C) aneurysm.
D) diverticula.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
9.
The most important organs of the immune system include all of the following except
A) spleen.
B) muscle.
C) lymph nodes.
D) thymus gland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
10.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
11.
Why is complementary and alternative medicine considered to be unconventional medicine?
A) It is not taught in medical schools
B) Insurance companies refuse to cover it
C) Safety and effectiveness are not well established
D) It is used primarily by chiropractors and herbalists
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
12.
All of the following are features of herbs sold to the public except
A) they are not regulated as drugs by the FDA.
B) they are not evaluated for safety or effectiveness by the FDA.
C) the FDA, and not the manufacturer of the herb, has the burden of proving the product is unsafe.
D) they are considered appropriate for treatment of certain major health disorders such as cancer or AIDS.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
13.
A cancer that originates from bone is a(n)
A) sarcoma.
B) carcinoma.
C) osteocarcinoma.
D) hematopoietic neoplasm.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
14.
Kimmy is a curious 4-month-old baby who is just learning how to crawl. On Monday she came across some large dust particles underneath the couch, which caused her to sneeze and develop a runny nose and a cough. Two weeks later she came across more dust from the same place. Which of the following aspects of immunity allows Kimmy's body to remember how to respond to this dust again?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Beta cells
D) Spleen cells
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
15.
Common cell types that make up the immune system include all of the following except
A) P-cells.
B) B-cells.
C) T-cells.
D) phagocytes.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
16.
Anyone who is medically advised to lower blood cholesterol should
A) eat fish oil capsules.
B) take lecithin supplements.
C) achieve desirable body weight.
D) lower his/her intake of insoluble fiber.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
17.
The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of
A) sulfite.
B) sodium.
C) acrylamide.
D) bicarbonate.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
18.
Which of the following foods are associated with illness from Salmonella?
A) Raw vegetables
B) Pickled vegetables
C) Home-canned vegetables
D) Raw meats, poultry, and eggs
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
19.
Which of the following is the most common pathogenic microorganism in U.S. foods?
A) Salmonella
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium perfringens
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
20.
What has been the change in the current amount of imported foods compared with 10 years ago?
A) About the same
B) Reduced by about 20%
C) Reduced by about 50%
D) Increased by about 2-fold
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
21.
Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as
A) biofortification.
B) reverse DNA enrichment.
C) USDA approved enrichment.
D) frankenfood transdevelopment.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
22.
What processing method allows for cartons of milk to be shelved in grocery stores at room temperature?
A) Prolonged pasteurization
B) Boiling for exactly 10 minutes
C) Ultrahigh temperature treatment
D) Combination irradiation/pasteurization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
23.
Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the U.S. food supply?
A) Virtually all fish contain mercury
B) Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna
C) Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population group
D) Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
24.
If the lowest level of a food additive that causes a harmful effect is 100 micrograms, what amount would be allowed by the FDA's margin of safety?
A) 1 microgram
B) 50 micrograms
C) 100 micrograms
D) 1 milligram
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
25.
What is the largest single group of food additives?
A) Flavoring agents
B) Artificial sweeteners
C) Antimicrobial agents
D) Artificial coloring agents
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
26.
What is the most common source of bottled water?
A) Glacier run-off
B) Springs and wells
C) Rivers in the wilderness
D) Municipal water supplies
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
27.
What is the chief reason that nitrites are allowed to be added to certain meat products?
A) Nitrites improve the consistency
B) The vitamin content of meat is stabilized
C) The flavor of meat is enhanced significantly
D) Nitrites inhibit the formation of botulinum toxin
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
28.
What is the primary source of dietary mercury?
A) Seafood
B) Legumes
C) Unfiltered water
D) Undercooked poultry
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
29.
Common symptoms of foodborne illness caused by the Salmonella organism include all of the following except
A) diarrhea.
B) vomiting.
C) abdominal cramps.
D) low body temperature.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
30.
What is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a membrane?
A) Ozonation
B) Distillation
C) Reverse osmosis
D) Activated carbon filtration
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
31.
You are presenting a general seminar at a food safety convention. At the end of your talk, an audience member barrages you with questions about irradiation of foods causing people to be exposed to radioactive food. How should you respond?
A) Irradiation techniques do not in any way produce radioactive foods
B) There is only cause for concern when treating foods such as milk, grapefruits, eggs, and high-fat meats
C) Radioactive foods have been approved for consumption by the American Medical Association, the FAO, and the WHO
D) Cold pasteurization is the only technique that results in radioactive foods and as long as they are avoided, there is no cause for concern
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
32.
Which of the following is inappropriate advice on sanitation for someone traveling to another country?
A) Drink all beverages without ice
B) Drink bottled carbonated beverages
C) Boil the local water before use to kill microbes
D) Eat fruits and vegetables raw with their skins to decrease risk from wash-water contamination
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
33.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism?
A) A chief symptom is diarrhea
B) A full recovery may take years
C) It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus
D) It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
34.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
35.
Approximately what percentage of the U.S. food supply outside of the home is wasted?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
36.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
37.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
38.
If the world's production of food energy were equally distributed among the world's population, approximately how many kcalories per day would be available to each person?
A) 650
B) 1000
C) 1450
D) 2720
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
39.
What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP?
A) $10
B) $35
C) $100
D) $145
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
40.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
41.
What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
A) FAP
B) WIC
C) EAT
D) MOW
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
42.
About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 100 kcalories of grains?
A) 1
B) 33
C) 50
D) 75
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
43.
Which of the following is not one of the three major factors affecting world population growth?
A) Birth rates
B) Death rates
C) Standard of living
D) Scientific knowledge
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
44.
What is aquaculture?
A) A seaweed growth system
B) The practice of fish farming
C) A water purification system
D) The raising of plants in a water environment
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
45.
Diseases of poverty are known to include all of the following except
A) cholera.
B) diabetes.
C) dysentery.
D) whooping cough.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
46.
Which of the following is a feature of U.S. agriculture practices?
A) They promote protection of soil and water
B) They frequently lead to higher crop prices
C) They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms
D) They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
47.
All of the following are features of herbicide use except
A) it pollutes the water and air.
B) it often injures more than just weeds.
C) it usually is safe for farmers to practice.
D) it encourages evolution of herbicide-resistant weeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
48.
The nutrients most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) iodine.
C) protein.
D) vitamin A.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
49.
What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
A) 1/25
B) 1/15
C) 1/5
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
50.
What is the international poverty line per day for a single person?
A) $1.08
B) $3.75
C) $5.15
D) $10.00
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Close
Close
Close
Close
Submitted by Barber, Ryan (rbarbe13) on 12/9/2011 9:28:07 AM
Points Awarded 13.00
Points Missed 37.00
Percentage 26.0%
Incorrect
1.
In the measurement of blood pressure, the units are expressed as
A) cm of silver.
B) cm of depth.
C) mm of plaque.
D) mm of mercury.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
2.
How does obesity increase the risk for developing hypertension?
A) Obesity is associated with altered kidney function and fluid retention leading to higher blood pressure
B) The excess fat pads surrounding the kidneys impair blood flow to these organs and lead to higher output of renin
C) Sodium intake in obese people significantly exceeds the recommended intake, thereby predisposing them to higher blood pressure
D) Higher lipoprotein lipase activity in obese people triggers the angiotensin cascade, leading to increased peripheral resistance to blood flow
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
3.
Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer?
A) Fiber
B) Inositol and biotin
C) Certain saturated fats
D) Protein from animal sources
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
4.
Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States does not bear a relationship to diet?
A) Cancer
B) Heart disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Pneumonia and influenza
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
5.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
6.
The diseases most common today include all of the following except
A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) tuberculosis.
D) heart disease.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
7.
Which of the following is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure?
A) Cancer
B) Diabetes
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Atherosclerosis
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
8.
Which of the following statements represents current thought regarding the development of cancer?
A) Dietary fat appears to be protective against many types of cancer
B) Food additives play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer
C) Food contaminants play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer
D) Dietary protein from animal sources appears to be protective against many types of cancer
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
9.
What is the term given to mounds of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develop in the artery walls?
A) Plaques
B) Angina streaks
C) Arterial thickening
D) Pre-thromboemboli
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
10.
Which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease?
A) Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases
B) Diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases
C) Dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood
D) Dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
11.
What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1?
A) 5-10
B) 10-20
C) 20-35
D) 45-55
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
12.
Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol?
A) Begin drug treatment
B) Consume a high-protein diet
C) Consume large amounts of fish and fish oils
D) Achieve and maintain appropriate body weight
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
13.
All of the following are features of herbs sold to the public except
A) they are not regulated as drugs by the FDA.
B) they are not evaluated for safety or effectiveness by the FDA.
C) the FDA, and not the manufacturer of the herb, has the burden of proving the product is unsafe.
D) they are considered appropriate for treatment of certain major health disorders such as cancer or AIDS.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
14.
Which of the following is not one of the factors that would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome?
A) Diuretic use
B) Insulin resistance
C) Abdominal obesity
D) High blood triglycerides
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
15.
What treatment is effective against lead poisoning and is also considered an alternative therapy for cardiovascular disease?
A) Ozone injections
B) Chelation therapy
C) Biofield therapeutics
D) Hydroexpulsion therapeutics
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
16.
Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 7
D) 10
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
17.
Which of the following substances added to foods inhibits formation of botulinum toxin?
A) BHA
B) Nitrites
C) Table salt
D) Sodium ascorbate
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
18.
All of the following are characteristics of raw oyster consumption except
A) freezing for 24 hours kills the hepatitis virus.
B) some hot sauces can kill the bacteria found in them.
C) some people who drink alcohol are protected from oyster-borne illness.
D) people with weakened immune systems are especially vulnerable to oyster-borne illness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
19.
What substance is commonly added to public water supplies to disinfect the water?
A) Ozone
B) Fluoride
C) Chlorine
D) Penicillin
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
20.
Of the following, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent?
A) Sugar
B) Saccharin
C) Sodium nitrite
D) Sodium propionate
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
21.
What is the chief reason for not using irradiation for preserving dairy products?
A) It imparts off flavors
B) It coalesces the fat particles
C) It is inefficient at killing microorganisms
D) It results in high amounts of food radioactive particles
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
22.
The FDA monitors pesticides by sampling
A) all food shipments for all pesticides.
B) all food shipments for some pesticides.
C) some food shipments for all pesticides.
D) some food shipments for some pesticides.
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
23.
What is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides?
A) FAO
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) USDA
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
24.
A patient reports that since returning from overseas travel to a developing country, she has been experiencing stomach cramps and diarrhea. Which of the following foodborne organisms is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A) E. coli
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Listeria monocytogenes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
25.
What is the largest single group of food additives?
A) Flavoring agents
B) Artificial sweeteners
C) Antimicrobial agents
D) Artificial coloring agents
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
26.
Two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the consumption of a common food is termed a(n)
A) rash.
B) outbreak.
C) epidemic.
D) toxic incidence.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
27.
Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it
A) has been irradiated.
B) contains genetically engineered ingredients.
C) was made with at least 95% organic ingredients.
D) was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
28.
What carcinogen is known to be produced when high-carbohydrate foods are cooked at high temperatures?
A) Dioxins
B) Acrylamides
C) Carrageenan
D) Nitrosamines
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
29.
According to the FDA, what is the leading food safety concern?
A) Food additives
B) Pesticide residues
C) Foodborne illnesses
D) Environmental contaminants
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
30.
What sweetener should be avoided by people with PKU?
A) Neotame
B) Sucralose
C) Aspartame
D) Acesulfame-K
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
31.
The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as
A) sanitization.
B) sterilization.
C) pasteurization.
D) depathogenation.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
32.
What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food?
A) 5-10 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) mc031-1.jpg-1 minute
D) 3 minutes
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
33.
You are presenting a general seminar at a food safety convention. At the end of your talk, an audience member barrages you with questions about irradiation of foods causing people to be exposed to radioactive food. How should you respond?
A) Irradiation techniques do not in any way produce radioactive foods
B) There is only cause for concern when treating foods such as milk, grapefruits, eggs, and high-fat meats
C) Radioactive foods have been approved for consumption by the American Medical Association, the FAO, and the WHO
D) Cold pasteurization is the only technique that results in radioactive foods and as long as they are avoided, there is no cause for concern
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
34.
Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
A) insecurity.
B) insufficiency.
C) vulnerability.
D) precariousness.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Incorrect
35.
The nutrients most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide include all of the following except
A) iron.
B) iodine.
C) protein.
D) vitamin A.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Incorrect
36.
All of the following are features of herbicide use except
A) it pollutes the water and air.
B) it often injures more than just weeds.
C) it usually is safe for farmers to practice.
D) it encourages evolution of herbicide-resistant weeds.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): C
Correct
37.
How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people?
A) About the same
B) One-half as much
C) 5 times as much
D) 10 times as much
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
38.
What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
A) Feeding America
B) Goodwill Food Assistance
C) Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
D) Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): A
Correct
39.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of poverty and hunger?
A) Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household
B) The highest rates of obesity occur among the poorest
C) The provision of food to the poor actually helps to prevent obesity
D) The poor prefer to purchase energy-dense foods despite their higher cost compared with vegetables
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
40.
The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A) India.
B) China.
C) Africa.
D) Ireland.
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
41.
What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A) WIC
B) EAT
C) National Food Resource Program
D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
42.
What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A) Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B) Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C) The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D) The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
43.
About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 100 kcalories of grains?
A) 1
B) 33
C) 50
D) 75
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
44.
As a church volunteer, you propose implementation of a food recovery program. Which of the following would not be a part of your proposal to the church board of directors?
A) Collect prepared foods from commercial kitchens
B) Salvage perishable items from wholesalers and markets
C) Gather crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest
D) Collect applications for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program to provide for any member or non-member of the church requesting assistance
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Incorrect
45.
What fraction of the U.S. population lives in poverty?
A) 1/20
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Incorrect
46.
Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A) As economic status improves, population growth rises
B) As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C) Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D) Over the last decade the increase in the world's food output has been greater than the increase in the world's population
Points Earned: 0.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): B
Correct
47.
Approximately how many people, in millions, are served by the U.S. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 13
D) 28
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
48.
If the world's production of food energy were equally distributed among the world's population, approximately how many kcalories per day would be available to each person?
A) 650
B) 1000
C) 1450
D) 2720
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
49.
Which of the following is a feature of U.S. agriculture practices?
A) They promote protection of soil and water
B) They frequently lead to higher crop prices
C) They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms
D) They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
Correct
50.
What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population?
A) 0.5 million
B) 12 million
C) 50 million
D) 70 million
Points Earned: 1.0/1.0
Correct Answer(s): D
